So, This is the official Questions Paper and Answer Key for the paper 2 conducted on 2020, taken from official website

Note: This paper contains (100) multiple choice questions, each questions carrying two (2) marks. Attempt all of them.

(PDF) For download pdf file of question paper go to the bottom of this post.



Q.1. Green data book containing a list of

(A) Rare plant species

(B) Rare plants and anima

(C) Endangered plants

(D) Extinct animal only

Answer – A


Q.2. The following two lists state the name of Bird Sanctuaries and the States where they are situated. Match the Bird Sanctuary with their respective State.

List-I (Bird Sanctuary) List-II (Name of States)
(a) Sultanpur  (i) Haryana
(b) Bharatpur  (ii) Rajasthan
(c) Nawabganj  (iii) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Ranganthithu  (iv) Karnataka

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) ii i iii iv
(B) ii i iv iii
(C) i ii iv iii
(D) i ii iii iv


Answer – D


Q.3. The terms ‘Pedocals’ and Pedalfers’ were first proposed by

(A) Hilgard

(B) Marbut

(C) Dakuchaev

(D) Neustreuev

Answer -B


Q.4. Which of the following leaf modifications occur in the desert areas to inhibit water loss?

  1. Hard and waxy leaves
  2. Tiny leaves or no leaves
  3. Drip-tip leaves
  4. Thorn instead of leaves

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 2 and 3

(C) 1,2 and 4

(D) 1 and 4

Answer – C


Q.5. The luxuriant growth of natural vegetation in tropical rain forests is due to

  1. the fertile soil.
  2. hot and wet weather throughout the year.
  3. the intense sunlight for photosynthesis.
  4. seasonal change to facilitate nutrient absorption.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) 1 and 4

(B) 2 and 3

(C) 1, 2 and 3

(D) 2.3 and 4

Answer – B


Q.6. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?

(A) Methane

(B) Argon

(C) Carbon dioxide

(D) Water vapour

Answer – B


Q.7. Assertion (A): Soil management is fundamental to agricultural system.

Reason (R): Managing the soil nutrients, water and air within soil system is fundamental to plants’ growth.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer – A


Q.8. Which one of the following is the main source of CO pollution by human practices?

(A) Heavy Industries

(B) Automobile Industries

(C) Advanced Agricultural Practices

(D) Mining Activities

Answer – B


Q.9. Which of the following countries has the longest stretch of the proposed Asian Highway Network?

(A) Kazakhstan

(B) Iran

(C) India

(D) Thailand

Answer – C


Q.10. A lake created by meteorite impact in India is

(A) Lonar

(B) Sambar

(C) Tso Kar

(D) Loktak

Answer – A


Q.11. Between which of the following mountain ranges the valley of Kashmir is situated?

(A) The Karakoram and the Pir Panjal Ranges

(B) The Pir Panjal and the Zaskar Ranges

(C) The Ladakh and the Zaskar Range

(D) The Kirthar and the Sulaiman Ranges

Answer – B


Q.12. As per India Meteorological Department (IMD) which of the following statements is true?

  1. July is the rainiest month in India.
  2. Withdrawal of the South-West Monsoon and setting in of Winter Monsoon take place in the middle of October.
  3. The South-West Monsoon usually co whole country by the end of July.
  4. June to September is the normal period of occurrence of the South-West

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(C) 2.3 and 4

(D) 1.2 and 4

Answer – D


Q.13. Greta Thunberg, who delivered a sensational speech on a panel at the UN climate summit in New York on 23 September 2019 is a citizen of

(A) Sweden

(B) Iceland

(C) Norway

(D) Finland.

Answer – A



Q.14. Geostrophic Wind is originated when

(A) pressure gradient force is equal to Coriolis force.

(B) pressure gradient force is balanced by Coriolis force acting in opposite direction.

(C) pressure gradient force is balanced by Coriolis force and centrifugal acceleration acting together.

(D) divergence is equal to convergence.

Answer – B


Q.15. The ratio of the weight of water vapour in a parcel of the atmosphere to the total weight of moist air is

(A) Specific humidity

(B) Absolute humidity

(C) Relative humidity

(D) Mixing ratio

Answer – A


Q.16. The correct sequence of the cloud types with height from the ground level is

(A) Altocumulus, Cirrocumulus, Stratocumulus, Cumulus

(B) Cumulus, Stratocumulus, Altocumulus, Cirrocumulus

(C) Stratocumulus, Altocumulus, Cumulus, Cirrocumulus

(D) Cumulus. Altocumulus, Cirrocumulus, Stratocumulus

Answer – B


Q.17. Images from which of the following Satellites does not provide information on weather elements?





Answer – A


Q.18. Which of the following conditions are favourable for the formation of dew?

  1. Nocturnal radiative cooling below dew point temperature of the air resting near earth’s surface.
  2. Warm previous day to raise the moisture content of air.
  3. Calm evening without turbulence in the atmosphere.
  4. Clear sky.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 1, 2 and 3

(C) 1,2,3 and 4

(D) 2,3 and 4

Answer – C


Q.19. Which among the following is/are the major factor/factors responsible for the monsoon type of climate in India?

  1. Location
  2. Thermal contrast
  3. Upper air circulation
  4. Inter-tropical convergence zone

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) 1

(B) 2 and 3

(C) 2,3 and 4

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer – D


Q.20. Assertion (A): Mackinder’s theory of Heartland put forward a key formula “who rules Europe, commands the Heartland; who rules Heartland, commands the World Island; who rules the World Island command the world.”

Reason (R): Mackinder’s formula offered Stalin’s strategy for territorial expansion and international supremacy.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer – B


wbset 2020 geography solved paper

Answer – C


Q.22. The most significant plate-driving force is considered to be

(A) Ridge-push

(B) Slab-pull

(C) Basal drive

(D) Trench suction

Answer – B


Q.23. A river channel pattern may alter from braided to meandering due to the following change in its catchment area:

(A) Increase in rainfall

(B) Decrease in rainfall

(C) Urbanisation

(D) Deforestation

Answer – B


Q.24. Which of the following is the most ideal conditions for the chemical weathering of rocks?

(A) Cold and dry climate

(B) Hot and humid climate

(C) Hot and dry climate

(D) Cold and humid climate

Answer – B


Q.25. Which of the following features is the indication of a rejuvenation process in a river valley?

(A) Braiding stream

(B) Structural terrace

(C) Alluvial fans

(D) Entrenched meanders

Answer – D


Q.26. Rock-walled steep depressions caused by the collapse of ground surface in Karst geomorphology is called as

(A) Cockpits

(B) Poljes

(C) Grykes

(D) Sinkholes

Answer – A


Q.27. Assertion (A): By far the most common and widespread topographic form in a Karst terrain is the sinkhole.

Reason (R) : Topographically, a sinkhole is a depression that varies in depth from less than a meter to few hundred meters.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer – B


Q.28. Arrange the following concepts in order in which they evolved. Select the correct answer from the codes given below the concepts.

I. Principle of Uniformitarianism

II. Theory of Continental Drift

III. Dynamic Equilibrium Theory

IV. Theory of Convection Current


(A) (I) (Ш) (IV) (Ш)

(B) (II) (1) (IV) (III)

(C) (IV) (1) (II) (HID)

(D) (1) (II) (IV) (III)

Answer – D


Q.29. When two meander neck do not come closer but a channel from one neck joins to other and the main flow turns on that channel is termed as

(A) Parallel channel flow

(B) Semi-neck cut off

(C) Chute cut off

(D) Non-neck cut off

Answer – C


Q.30. Superimposed profile is drawn to understand the

(A) break of slope.

(B) ruggedness of topography.

(C) panoramic view.

(D) cyclic nature of landscape.

Answer – D


Q.31. In a periglacial environment, pingos form due to

(A) Ice wedge coalescence

(B) Ice core growth

(C) Ice action

(D) Ice penetration from active zone

Answer – B


Q.32. Trunks of trees growing on the banks of natural water bodies are often seen to take U-shaped bends. This primarily occurs due to

(A) Phototropism

(B) Gravitropism

(C) Water-level fluctuations

(D) Creep of the bank materials

Answer – D


Q.33. Assertion (A): Portions of glacial troughs may exhibit remarkably flat floors.

Reason (R): The flat floor in a glacial trough is produced by uniform glacial erosion.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer – B


Q.34. Transportation cost does not play a major role in the location of textile industry, because

(A) cotton is a weight loosing material.

(B) cotton is a weight gaining material.

(C) weight loss in cotton during manufacturing is very high.

(D) weight of cotton is more or less equal to the weight of the finished product.

Answer – D


Q.35. Which one of the following methods is considered as the segregated set of relationship among the factors of an event?

(A) Flow Analysis

(B) Principal Component Analysis

(C) Weighted Index

(D) Gravity Analysis

Answer – B


Q.36. Ecotone is an area that can be depicted by quantitative method through

(A) Neutral Set

(B) Singular Set

(C) Intersection Set

(D) Union Set

Answer – C


Q.37. Consider the following statements:

Short duration leptokurtic storm hydrograph is produced at the outlet of a drainage basin when

  1. the shape of the basin is circular.
  2. the intensity of rainfall is very high.
  3. the average slope is less.
  4. the drainage density is high.

Which of the above statements is correct?

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 3 and 4

(C) 1 and 3

(D) 2 and 3

Answer – A


Q.38. In Socio-economic survey when data is collected through a questionnaire in the form of a natural order like-high, medium and low, such data is classified as

(A) Nominal Data

(B) Ordinal Data

(C) Interval Data

(D) Ratio Data

Answer – B


Q.39. Law of stream number conforms to the mathematical model of

(A) Positive Exponential Function

(B) Negative Exponential Function

(C) Positive Arithmetic Function

(D) Negative Arithmetic Function

Answer – B


Q.40. In articulating the idea of Possibilism’ La Blache was influenced by the idea of

(A) Cosmos of Humboldt

(B) Anthropogeography of Ratzel

(C) Erdkunde of Ritter

(D) The Morphology of Landscape of Sauer

Answer – B


Q.41. Darwinism in Social Ecology was first applied by

(A) W. M. Davis

(B) T. H. Huxley

(C) H. Spencer

(D) Carl O. Sauer

Answer – C


Q.42. The social theory that appeared as the sequel to Behaviouralism is

(A) Radicalism

(B) Structuralism

(C) Game Theory

(D) Feminism

Answer – C


Q.43. La Terra is authored by whom of the following?

(A) Réclus

(B) Kropotkin

(C) Ritter

(D) Huxley

Answer – A


Q.44. Who used ‘Grand Theory’ for the first time?

(A) D. Harvey

(B) M. Foucault

(C) C. W. Mills

(D) T. Parsons

Answer – C


Q.45. Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) was first introduced in which country?

(A) Canada

(B) Sweden

(C) Norway

(D) U.S.A.

Answer – D


Q.46. Scholastic relationship under bivariate analysis is primarily a

(A) Probable relationship

(B) Estimated relationship

(C) Linear relationship

(D) Non-linear relationship

Answer – A


Q.47. The major agricultural regions of the world were first identified by

(A) Johann Heinrich von Thunen

(B) Derwent Wittlesey

(C) William J. Peters

(D) David Grigg

Answer – B


Q.48. Which of the following correctly describes the characteristics of deep ecology?

  1. Holistic view
  2. Anthropocentric environmentalism
  3. Green movements
  4. Simple living

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 1, 3 and 4

(C) 2,3 and 4

(D) 1,2 and 4

Answer – B


Q.49. Field capacity with reference to soil-water-plant relationships refers to

(A) Capillary water

(B) Capillary and hygroscopic water

(C) Capillary, hygroscopic and confined water

(D) Capillary, hygroscopic, confined water and water vapour

Answer – D


Q.50. Match List-I with List-II.

List-I (Geologic Periods/Epochs) List-II (Life Forms)
(a) Triassic (i) Origin of man
(b) Jurassic (ii) Rise of birds and flying reptiles
(c) Pleistocene (iii) Rise of archaic animals
(d) Pliocene (iv) Rise of dinosaurs


On the basis of above information choose the correct alternative from the following codes:

            (a)        (b)       (c)        (d)

(A)       iv         ii          iii         i

(B)       i           ii          iii         iv

(C)       i           iv         iii         ii

(D)       iii         iv         ii          i 

Answer – A


Q.51. Due to presence of natural levee of mainstream, tributary of the main stream sometimes may flow parallel to the mainstream before joining is called

(A) Anabranching stream

(B) Braided channel

(C) Yazoo stream

(D) Anastomosing channel

Answer – C


Q.52. Which of the following geological era is associated with the folding of the Himalayan mountain system?

(A) Caenozoic

(B) Mesozoic

(C) Palaeozoic

(D) Azoic

Answer – A


Q.53. Match the following:

Pressure Belts: Latitude:
(a) Equatorial Low Pressure Belt (1) 25°-35° North and South
(b) Subtropical High Pressure Belt (2) 5°-5° North and South
(c) Subpolar Low Pressure Belt (3) 60°-65° North and South
(d) Polar High Pressure Belt (4) 85°-90° North and South



            (a)       (b)       (c)        (d)

(A)       2          1          3          4

(B)       1          2          3          4

(C)       3          4          2          1

(D)       4          3          2          1

Answer – A


Q.54. In which of the following continents the range of temperature ever recorded had been the minimum?

(A) Asia

(B) Africa

(C) Australia

(D) Antarctica

Answer – C


Q.55. Fordism is used to describe

(A) manufacturing technique only.

(B) societal condition only.

(C) Neither (A) nor (B)

(D) Both (A) and (B)

Answer – D


Q.56. The ‘y’ value of a correlation coefficient varies between

(A) + 1.0 to -1.0

(B) 0 to + 1.0

(C) -1.0 to 0.0

(D) 1.00 to 10.0

Answer – A


Q.57. Which one of the following pairs is incorrect?

(A) Isobar-Pressure

(B) Isotherm-Temperature

(C) Isohels-Wind Velocity

(D) Isohytes-Rainfall

Answer – C


Q.58. The Hill Areas Development Programme in India was initiated during

(A) the Seventh 5 Year Plan Period.

(B) the Second 5 Year Plan Period.

(C) the Fourth 5 Year Plan Period.

(D) the Fifth 5 Year Plan Period.

Answer – D


Q.59. The growth centre programme to promote industrialisation of backward areas in India was introduced in which year?

(A) 1951

(B) 1973

(C) 1988

(D) 1991

Answer – C


Q.60. The data of estimation of India’s National Income is issued by

(A) Census of India

 (B) National Data Centre

(C) Central Statistical Organisation

(D) NITI Aayog

Answer – C


Q.61. The Second Five Year Plan in India was based on

(A) Herold-Domar Model

(B) P.C. Mahalanobis Model

(C) V.T. Stanberry Model

(D) A.R. Kuklinski Model

Answer – B


Q.62. Which one of the following is not the essential characteristics of post-Fordism?

(A) Reliance on e-transaction of capital

(B) Reliance on heavy industries

(C) Reliance on market linked production

(D) Reliance on share market

Answer – B


Q.63. The theory of Mobility Transition Model is conditioned by

(A) birth rate, death rate and migration of population of a region.

(B) birth rate and death rate of a region.

(C) population growth, level of urbanization and change of technology.

(D) import, export and capital flow.

Answer – C


Q.64. The abstract belief systems that pass over from generation to generation is called

(A) Artifact

(B) Mentifact

(C) Sociofact

(D) Cultural diffusion

Answer – B


Q.65. Which of the following characterises Mixed Farming?

(A) Practice of cultivation of crops and raising livestock simultaneously.

(B) Practice of growing two or more crops simultaneously in the same field.

(C) Practice of growing different crops in succession in the same field.

(D) Practice of raising alternate crops successively for subsistence and marketing.

Answer – A


Q.66. Which of the following activities is performed quite close to the market as per Von Thunen’s model of Agricultural Location?

(A) Extensive grain farming

(B) Dairying and market gardening

(C) Mixed farming

(D) Extensive stock raising

Answer – B


Q.67. The classic essay “The Tragedy of the Commons” was written by

(A) David Harvey

(B) Charles Darwin

(C) David Smith

(D) Garrett Hardin

Answer – D


Q.68. The Multiple Nuclei Model’ states that

(A) urban land use shows a series of circular belts around the city centre.

(B) cities do not develop any recognizable zones of land use.

(C) wedge-shaped zones radiate outward from the central business district.

(D) cities develop several nodes of growth each with specialised use.

Answer – D


Q.69. Who introduced the idea of ‘Garden City?

(A) Le Corbusier

(B) Robert Owen

(C) Ebenezer Howard

(D) Frank Lloyd Wright

Answer – C


Q.70. Which among the following is odd?

(A) Mercantile model : Vance

(B) Metropolitan evolution : Borchert

(C) Selective urban growth : Muller

(D) Central Place theory : Christaller

Answer – D


Q.71. As per the classification of towns by the Census of India 2011, Class-III towns have a population of

(A) 50,000 to 99,999

(B) 20,000 to 49,999

(C) 10,000 to 19,999

(D) 5,000 to 9,999

Answer – B


Q.72. Which one of the following rural settlements has the best road network?

(A) Street village

(B) Peri-urban village

(C) Transit village

(D) Cruciform village

Answer – D


Q.73. Which one is considered as the best combination as precondition of pre-industrial urban growth?

(A) Population-Environment-Technology Social organization

(B) Population-Political organization-Social Organization-Technology-Trade

(C) Population-Environment-Technology Trade

(D) Population-Trade-Transport-Political Organization

Answer – D


Q.74. Growth of population through the successive stage of

‘Demographic Transition Model’ has the appearance of a

(A) Geometric curve

(B) Exponential curve

(C) Sigmoid curve

(D) Parabolic curve

Answer – C


Q.75. ‘Fecundity’ is

(A) Capacity to reproduce

(B) Actual reproductive performance

(C) Actual births taken place

(D) Inability to reproduce

Answer – A


Q.76. The Boserupian theory of population growth is most appropriate for which society?

(A) All societies

(B) Developed societies

(C) Subsistence societies

(D) Bourgeoise society

Answer – C


Q.77. As per the United Nations, when did the world population reach the one billion mark for the first time?

(A) 1787

(B) 1804

(C) 1857

(D) 1927

Answer – B


Q.78. For small distance migration, female migration overtakes male due to

(A) demographic structure of the society.

(B) occupational structure of the society.

(C) economic structure of the society.

(D) patriarchal structure of the society.

Answer – D


Q.79. Which district of West Bengal among the following has the highest concentration of Sabaras?

(A) Purulia

(B) Bankura

(C) Paschim Medinipur

(D) Jhargram

Answer – D


Q.80. Two-thirds of the world population live in

(A) the northern hemisphere.

(B) the areas between 20° and 50° South.

(C) the areas between 20° and 60° North.

(D) the temperate areas of the world.

Answer – C


Q.81. The third stage of demographic transition is marked by

(A) declining birth rate and low population growth.

(B) high birth and death rates.

(C) low birth and death rates.

(D) high natural increase of population.

Answer – A


Q.82. In which part of the oceans and seas oozes are quite uncommon in their occurences?

(A) Abyssal plain

(B) Oceanic deeps

(C) Summits of sea mounts

(D) Submarine canyons

Answer – D


Q.83. Which of the following types of tides have the highest amplitude given the other factors remaining the same?

(A) Spring tides

(B) Perigean neap tides

(C) Perigean spring tides

(D) Apogean spring tides

Answer – C


Q.84. The Caco, compensation depth in seas is usually about

(A) 4,000 m

(B) 4,500 m

(C) 5,000 m

(D) 5500m

Answer – B


Q.85. The average global rate of sea-level rise as present is about

(A) 1-6 mm/yr

(B) 2-1 mm/yr

(C) 2-6 mm/yr

(D) 3-3 mm/yr

Answer – D


Q.86. Past records of sea-level changes are best deciphered from

(A) Sandy coasts

(B) Rocky coasts

(C) Mangrove-fringed coasts

(D) Ice-fringed coasts

Answer – B


Q.87. The concept of Lebensraum’ in Political Geography refers to

(A) a living space sought for Occupation by a nation with expanding population.

(B) a territory not occupied by any nation.

(C) a buffer zone between two nations.

(D) a boundary area with rich natural resources,

Answer – A


Q.88. A continuous spiral motion of water as it flows along a river channel is termed as

(A) Helical flow

(B) Laminar flow

(C) Steady flow

(D) Base flow

Answer – A


Q.89. Residual Hums landscape feature is found in

(A) Karst topography

(B) Desert landscape

(C) Glacio-fluvial landscape

(D) Areas of marine transgression

Answer – A


Q.90. Shingles are the water-worn rounded stones, usually associated with

(A) Fluvial process

(B) Glacial process

(C) Aeolian process

(D) Marine process

Answer – D


Q.91. The time interval between two steady state or equilibrium conditions is called

(A) Relaxation time

(B) Steady time

(C) Geosync time

(D) Alteration time

Answer – A


Q.92. Compared to true dip, the value of apparent dip of a sedimentary stratum is

(A) either higher or lower.

(B) always higher.

(C) always lower.

(D) different by 90° in strike direction.

Answer – C


Q.93. Lahars are best described as mass-movement features associated with

(A) Volcanoes

(B) Mud banks

(C) Valley sidewalls

(D) Landslide scars

Answer – A


Q.94. The Globe was divided into ‘geostrategic realms’ by whom?

(A) Bassin

(B) Cohen

(C) Kjellen

(D) Parker

Answer – B


Q.95. The ‘Rimland Theory’ was propounded by whom among the following?

(A) Bernard Grofman

(B) Richard Morrill

(C) Martin Glassner

(D) Nicholas Spykman

Answer – D


Q.96. Which of the following are basic elements in Peter Haggett model for the Study of Spatial Systems?

(I) Channels

(II) Diffusion

(III) Hierarchies

(IV) Movements

(V) Surfaces


(A) (I) and (II)

(B) (1), (II) and (IV)

(C) (III) only

(D) (1), (II), (III), (IV) and (V)

Answer – D


Q.97. The term ‘Geopiety’ was coined by whom?

(A) C.O. Sauer

(B) A. Buttimer

(C) J.K. Wright

(D) Yi-Fu Tuan

Answer – C


Q.98. Arrange the following binaries and identify the correct option:

a. General I. Emotional
b. Explanation II. Complexity
c. Objectivity III. Particular
d. Order IV. Interpretation
e. Rational V. Subjectivity



            (a)       (b)       (c)        (d)       (e)

(A)       II         I           III        V         IV

(B)       V         IV        III        II         I

(C)       III        IV        V         II         I

(D)       I           III        V         IV        II

Answer – C


Q.99. Empiricism is associated with whom?

(A) John Locke

(B) David Hume

(C) August Comte

(D) Edmund Husserl

Answer – A


Q.100. S.B.Jones’ view of states was based on the idea of

(A) Deutsch. Gottman and Hartshorne

(B) Mackinder. Gottman and Hartshorne

(C) Deutsch, Gottman and Mackinder

(D) Ratzel, Hartshorne and Johnston

Answer – A


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