OCTOBER 2022 PAPER 1 NTA UGC NET OFFICIAL SOLVED PAPER

OCTOBER 2022 PAPER 1 NTA UGC NET OFFICIAL SOLVED PAPER

PAPER 1 October 2022 SOLVED PAPER UGC NET, NTA UGC NET PAPER 1 SOLVED PAPER, UGC NET SOLVED PAPER 1 June 2022, CBSE UGC NET SOLVED OLD October Geography Paper 1,October 2022 PAPER 1 UGC NET, PAPER 1 UGC NET, NTA UGC NET PAPER 1,June 2022 NTA UGC NET PAPER 1 SOLVED PAPER,

So, This is the official Questions Paper and Answer Key for the paper 1 conducted on OCTOBER 2022  , taken from official website NTA UGC NET

Note: This paper contains (50) multiple choice questions, each questions carrying two (2) marks. Attempt all of them.

(PDF) For download pdf file of question paper go to the bottom of this post.

Q.1. The following table presents the details about the number of students enrolled in three different academic programmes namely. B.A., B.C.A. and B.B.A. in five different colleges (A-E) during the year 2020. Based on the data in the table, answer the questions 1-5;

Q.1. What is the average number of student studying B.C.A. in all the five colleges together?

(1) 365

(2) 395

(3) 330

(4) 355

Q.2. What is the respective ratio of total number of students studying in B.C.A. in the colleges C and E together to those studying in B.A. in the colleges A and B together?

(1) 24:23

(2) 25:27

(3) 29.23

(4) 29.27

Q.3. Number of students studying in B.B.A. in college C forms approximately what percent of the total number of students studying in B.B.A. in all the five colleges together?

(1) 21 %

(2) 39 %

(3) 33 %

(4) 17 %

Q.4. What is the respective ratio of total number of students studying in B.CA., B.A. and B.B.A. in all the colleges together?

(1) 72 : 67 : 70

(2) 67 : 71 .75

(3) 71 : 68 : 75

(4) 75 : 71 : 68

Q.5. Number of students studying in B.A. in college B forms what percent of total number of students studying in all the programmes together in the same college? (rounded off to two digits after decimal)

(1) 26.80%

(2) 27.27%

(3) 29.84%

(4) 32.51%

Q.6. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The Nyaya system does not accept Arthapatti as an independent source of valid knowledge

Statement II: The Nyaya item reduces Arthapatti to an inference of anvayi type

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II a false

(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(4) Statement I is false but Staten II is true

Q.7. Identify the correct arrangement of the following storage capacities in the decreasing order

(A) 10 Mega Bytes

(B) 10 Tera bytes

(C) 10 Exa bytes

(D) 10 Yotta bytes

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (D), (C), (B), (A)

(2) (C), (D), (B), (A)

(3) (C), (B), (D), (A)

(4) (B), (C) (D), (A)

Q.8. Mahadev Govind Ranade, Gopal Ganesh Agarkar, Gopal Krishna Gokhale were known to insist on the idea

(1) Keep women unenlightened in order to preserve the superiority of men

(2) Provide equal educational opportunities to both boys and girls, through co-educational institutions

(3) All domestic work should be done by women alone

(4) If women study science they would lose faith in religion

Q.9. Which of the following characteristics pertains to Non-conventional learning?

(1) On campus education with fixed time

(2) Teacher centered learning

(3) Requirement of regular attendance

(4) No fixed curriculum

Q.10. What is the correct sequence of concentration of various components of producer gas?

(1) CH4

(2) CO2

(3) CO

(4) N2

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (D) > (C) > (A) > (B)

(2) (D) > (C) > (B) > (A)

(3) (C) > (D) > (A) > (B)

(4) (C) > (D) > (B) > (A)

Q.11. ‘Scheme for Trans-Disciplinary Research for India’s Developing economy’ was initiated by

(1) CSIR

(2) DST

(3) ICSSR

(4) UGC

Q.12. For classroom testing, the length of the test will vary depending upon

(A) Purpose of test

(B) Kinds of items used

(C) Knowledge of subject teacher

(D) Age and ability of the pupils tested

(E) Instructional objective tested

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) A, B, C, D only

(2) A, C, D, E only

(3) A, B, D, E only

(4) B, C, D, E only

Q.13. Match List I with List II

List I

Communication variety

(A) Paralanguage

(B) Proxemics

(C) Colour

(D) Artifact

List-II

Description

(I) Objects and images with cultural context

(II) Hesitation noise

(III) Personal space

(IV) Different moods

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

(2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

(3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

(4) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

Q.14. Match List I with List II

List I

(Name of Intelligence Test)

(A) WAIS-R

(B) WISC-R

(C) WPPSI-R

(D) Kaufman-ABC

List II

Applicable to age group

(I) for ages 3 to 7 ½

(II) for ages 6 to 16

(III) for ages 16 to 74

(IV) for ages 2 ½ to 12 ½

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

(3) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Q.15. Error can creep into interview data due to following factors:

(A) Failure to record answers accurately

(B) Influencing the response of the respondents

(C) Interviewees are intelligent

(D) Interviewer is able to explain the questions well

(E) Failure to establish appropriate interview environment

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) A, B, D only

(2) A, B, E only

(3) B, C, D only

(4) C, D, E only

Q.16. Identify the fallacy committed in the following argument:

“An elephant is an animal; therefore, a small elephant is a small animal”

(1) Argument from Ignorance

(2) Fallacy of irrelevant Conclusion

(3) Fallacy of False Cause

(4) Fallacy of Equivocation

Q.17. Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Assertion A, and the other is labeled as Reason R

Assertion (A): In Samanyatodrsta inference the universal relation between the major and middle term depends on causal uniformity.

Reason (R): The middle term of the inference is related to the major term neither as a cause nor as an effect.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

(3) (A) is true but (R) is false

(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

Q.18. Which of the following file formats are suitable for distributing video files across the internet?

(A) .WMV

(B) .WAV

(C) .MIDI

(D) .MP3

(E) .MP4

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A and D only

(2) A and E only

(3) D and E only

(4) B and C only

Q.19. If a researcher has to compare the means across three groups quantitatively, which among the following will be the most appropriate statistical technique for this purpose

(1) Correlation analysis

(2) Regression analysis

(3) Chi-square test

(4) Analysis of variance

Q.20. When the receiver assigns a meaning to a language symbol in communication, it is called

(1) Response

(2) Perception

(3) Reverse labeling

(4) Meaning mapping

Q.21. Which among the following are used as General Aptitude Tests?

(A) Test of Cognitive Skills (TCS)

(B) Otis – Lennon School Ability Test (OLSAT)

(C) Metropolitan Achievement Test (MAT)

(D) Boelim test of Basic Concepts-Revised (Boelim-R)

(E) Thurstone test

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A, B, C only

(2) A, B, D only

(3) B, C, D only

(4) C, D, E only

Q.22. Consider the following statements:

(A) A train travelling 180 km/hr took 5.4 seconds to cross a stationary man. Length of the train is 250 m.

(B) If a bus covers 172 km in 4 hours, the speed of the bus is 154.8 m/s.

(C) If 25 X + 25 Y= 110, the average of X and Y is 2.2.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(1) (B) and (C) only

(2) (A) and (B) only

(3) (C) only

(4) (A) and (C) only

Q.23. The application of John Dewey’s theory to communication issues in sequence is:

(A) The criteria

(B) The analysis

(C) The selection and execution

(D) The problem

(E) The possible solutions

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (B), (C), (E), (D), (A) only

(2) (C), (D), (B), (A), (E) only

(3) (A), (C), (D), (E), (B) only

(4) (D), (A), (E), (B), (C) only

Q.24. National knowledge commission was established in the year

(1) 1998

(2) 2000

(3) 2005

(4) 2007

Q.25.Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Education enables upward social economic mobility and is a key for escaping poverty. Over the past decade major progress was made towards increased access to education and enrolment at all levels particularly for girls.

Reason (R): The global pandemic has far reaching consequences that may jeopardize hard won gains made in improving school education.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Q.26. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The length of a tree increases at the rate of 5% every year on its previous year’s length. If it is 2.0 feet now, it will increase 0.31525 feet in three years.

Statement II: A vendor sells an item for ₹ 56 making a profit of 40%. The cost price of the item is ₹ 40.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Q.27. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): In a valid categorial syllogism, if a term is distributed in the conclusion, then it must be distributed in the premises.

Reason (R): The conclusion of a valid argument cannot assert any more than is contained in the premises.

In the light of the above statements. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is true but (R) is false

(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

Q.28. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Geothermal energy is not a renewable source of energy.

Reason (R): The processes for extracting and using geothermal power are more akin to those for centralized fossil-fuels than the dispersed renewable supplies of the natural environment.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is true but (R) is false

(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

Q.29. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The ritualistic view of communication is that it is not used for the promotion of self-interest.

Statement II: In contrast, the transmission mode of communication considers it as an instrumental act.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Q.30. Identify the formal fallacy committed in the argument:

All criminals are human beings.

All saints are human beings

Therefore all saints are criminals.

(1) Fallacy of Illicit process of Major Term

(2) Fallacy of Illicit process of Minor Team

(3) Fallacy of undistributed Middle Term

(4) Fallacy of Four Terms

Q.31. A teacher to be an effective communicator, should resort to

(A) Acquisition of elitist background

(B) Natural flow of information

(C) Voluntary support to learning

(D) A system of immediate and regular feedback

(E) Convoluted presentations

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B), (C) only

(2) (B), (C), (D) only

(3) (C), (D), (E) only

(4) (A), (D), (E) only

Q.32. What comes next in the following sequence?

ET, JR, MP, PN, ?

(1) SM

(2) RM

(3) SL

(4) RL

Q.33. The Kaufman Assessment Battery for children contains P subtests across the various ages. but a maximum of Q subtest is administered to any one child. where (P. Q) =____________.

(1) (10, 5)

(2) (12, 8)

(3) (16, 13)

(4) (20, 15)

Q.34. Given below are two statements with regard to social media:

Statement I: ‘Twitter’ is the most well-known microblogging site.

Statement II: ‘Youtube’ is the largest video sharing site.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Q.35. Match List I with List II

List I

Referencing Style

(A) APA Style

(B) MLA Style

(C) Chicago Style

(D) IEEE Style

List II

Format of Citation

(I) Author, date…. (Sharma, Kailesh suggested photochromatic effect (2006)

(II) (Author Surname, Year)….. (Sharma, 2006)

(III) Number in square brackets…… This theory was first put forward in 2006 [10]

(IV) Authorname in text, allows footnotes….. Sharma develops this argument (67-69)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

(2) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)

(3) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)

(4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)

Q.36. With respect to Computers, BIOS is an acronym for:

(1) Binary Input Output Source

(2) Basic Input Output Support

(3) Binary Input Output System

(4) Basic Input Output System

Q.37. Match List I with List II

List I

(Computer Terms)

(A) OMR

(B) MICR

(C) RAM

(D) Firewall

List II

(Description)

(I) Used by banks to read codes on a cheque

(III) Marks multiple-choice questions

(IV) Stores programs and data temporarily

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)

(2) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

(3) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)

(4) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)

Q.38. Based on taxonomy of educational objectives, the ability to understand the meaning of material is known as

(1) Knowledge

(2) Responding

(3) Comprehension

(4) Application

Q.39. Ramesh goes to North, then turns right, then turns right again and then goes to the left. In which direction is Ramesh in now?

(1) North

(2) South

(3) East

(4) West

Q.40. Which of the following are true about Joint Forest Management (JFM)?

(A) Its concept was introduced through the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

(B) It involves both state forest department and local community

(C) Women also participate in this

(D) It varies from state to state and is known by different names in different languages

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) (A). (B) and (C) only

(2) (B), (C) and (D) only

(3) (A), (C) and (D) only

(4) (A), (B), (C) and (D)

Q.41. Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): If there are few extreme scores in the distribution, mode will be the most appropriate measure of central tendency.

Statement (II): Mean deviation is the most sophisticated measure of dispersion of distribution.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are true

(2) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are false

(3) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false

(4) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true

Q.42. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Dewey equated schools to communities and education to a social process.

Statement II: Chomsky expressed that ultimate aim of education is production of individuals which are different from each other in terms of quality.

In the light of the above statements, Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Q.43. Environmental problems associated with soils are

(A) Nutrient leaching

(B) Metal contamination

(C) Salinity and Alkalinity

(D) Ozone depletion

(E) Fine aerosols in ambient air

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B). (C). (E) only

(2) (B). (C), (E) only

(3) (A), (B), (C), (D) only

(4) (A), (B), (C) only

Q.44. Every hour the number of bacteria in a sample doubles. If the original number of bacteria is 100, and 50 bacteria are removed every two hours, after five hours, there are

(1) 2500 bacteria

(2) 2700 bacteria

(3) 1350 bacteria

(4) 2800 bacteria

Q.45. Disaster management plan was launched by ministry of Home affair in

(1) 2005

(2) 2011

(3) 2016

(4) 2020

Walter Lippman refers to stereotypes as a projection on to the ‘world’. Although he is not concerned primarily to distinguish stereotypes from modes of representation whose principal concern is not the world, it is important for us to do so, especially as our focus is representation in media fictions, which are aesthetic as well as social constructs. In this perspective, stereotypes are a particular sub-category of a broader category of fictional characters, the type. Whereas stereotypes are essentially defined by their aesthetic function. namely a mode of characterisation in fiction. The type is any character constructed through the use of a few immediately recognisable and defining traits, which do not change or ‘develop’ through the course of the narrative and which point to general, recurrent features of the human world. Th opposite of the type is the novelistic character, defined by a multiplicity of traits that are only gradually revealed to us through the course of the narrative, a narrative which is hinged on the growth or development of the character and is thus centered upon the latter in her or his unique individuality, rather than pointing outwards to a world. In any society, it is the novelistic character that is privileged over the type, for the obvious reason that the society’s privileges at any rate, at the level of social rhetoric-the individual over the collective or the mass. For this reason, the majority of fictions that address themselves to general social issues tend nevertheless to end up telling the story of a particular individual, hence returning social issues to purely personal and psychological ones. Once we address ourselves to the representation and definition of social categories, for example, alcoholics, we have to consider what is at stake in one mode of characterization than another.

Q.46. Representations that appear in the media fictions are

(1) Aesthetic constructs

(2) Reflection of real world

(3) Defining characters

(4) Materialistic characterisation

Q.47. Why the novelistic character is privileged over the type?

(1) Due to the demand of the narrative

(2) Because of single definable trait

(3) As it is part of a sub-category called stereotype

(4) Because of preference of social rhetoric to the individual.

Q.48. Any character in the type will reflect

(1) The illusory world

(2) The changeable traits of individuals

(3) The unchangeable traits of individuals

(4) The sub-categories of representation

Q.49. Stereotypes are characterized by

(1) Immediate recognition of people

(3) Absence of social constructs

(2) Fictional narration

Q.50. Most novelists, while addressing social issues, prefer fictionalization of

(1) The masses

(2) Social sub-categories

(3) Social privileges

(4) Personal issues