JUNE/JULY 2025 Geography Solved Question Paper NTA UGC NET by NETSET CORNER
JULY 2025 PAPER 2 Geography Solved Questions paper; NTA UGC NET PYQS, NTA UGC NET GEOGRAPHY PYQS, EBOOK FOR GEOGRAPHY PAPER 2
This is the official Questions Paper and Answer Key for the Paper 2 geography conducted on JULY 2025, taken from nta ugcnet site.
Note: This paper contains 100 multiple choice questions, each questions carrying two (2) marks. Attempt all of them.
(PDF) For download PDF file of question paper go to the bottom of this post.
Join our Whatsapp Group for WB-SLST FREE Mock Test 2025
Click here to Join Whatsapp Group
Q.1. Identify the physical factors which affects the supply of energy in the world and choose the correct statements?
(A) Large power stations require undulating land but geologically stable foundations.
(B) Solar power needs a large number of days a year with strong sun light.
(C) Tidal power stations require a small tidal range.
(D) Deposits of fossil-fuels are only found in a limited number of locations.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) A and B Only
(2) B and D Only
(3) A and D Only
(4) C and B Only
Answer: 2
Q.2. The Annual Plans were formulated in between which two five-year plans in India?
(1) Second and Third
(2) Third and Fourth
(3) Fourth and Fifth
(4) Fifth and Sixth
Answer: 2
Q.3. Which Ministry of Government of India looks after the Census operations in India?
(1) Ministry of Education
(2) Ministry of Statistics and Program implementation
(3) Ministry of Home Affairs
(4) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
Answer: 3
Q.4. Which one of the following is most suitable diagram to represent the decadal growth of population?
(1) Flow diagram
(2) Line graph
(3) Bar diagram
(4) Circle diagram
Answer: 2
Q.5. Match List – I with List – II:
List – I
Components of Ecosystem
(A) Photographs
(B) Chemotrophs
(C) Saprophytes
(D) Parasites
List – II
Related to
(I) Which prepare food through chemosynthesis
(II) Depends on organic components derived from dead plants and animals
(III) Depended on living organisms
(IV) Which prepare food through photosynthesis
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
Answer: 3
Q.6. Among the following statements choose the correct with reference to Mediterranean Biome:
(A) Mediterranean biome is also called as sclerophyl biome.
(B) This biome includes the European lands bordering the Mediterranean sea.
(C) Plants of the Mediterranean biome have special types of root system.
(D) Mediterranean biome extends between 10°N and 10°S latitudes in both the hemispheres.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B, C and D Only
(2) A, C and D Only
(3) A, B and D Only
(4) A, B and C Only
Answer: 4
Q.7. The concept of sea floor spreading was first propounded by ________.
(1) Hary Hess
(2) J.T. Wilson
(3) F.B. Taylor
(4) Dutton
Answer: 1
Q.8. Arrange the following tributaries of River Ganga from West to East?
(A) Sarda
(B) Gandak
(C) Gomati
(D) Ghaghara
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) C, A, B, D
(2) C, A, D, B
(3) A, C, B, D
(4) A, C, D, B
Answer: 2
Q.9. Match List – I with List – II:
List – I Glaciers
(A) Siachen
(B) Sona pani
(C) Rong buk
(D) Mana
List – II Locations
(I) The Korakoram Range
(II) The Pir Panjal Range
(III) The Kanchenjunga-Everest Region
(IV) The Kumaon – Garhwal Region
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Answer: 4
Q.10. The horizontal air photos are also called as _____________.
(1) Trimetrogen air photos
(2) Convegent air photos
(3) Oblique air photos
(4) Terrestrial air photos
Answer: 4
Q.11. Who wrote the book “Mainsprings of Civilization”?
(1) E. Huntington
(2) E.C. Semple
(3) H.J. Makinder
(4) G.P. Marsh
Answer: 1
Q.12. Albatross plateau is located in which Ocean?
(1) Pacific Ocean
(2) Atlantic Ocean
(3) Indian Ocean
(4) Arctic Ocean
Answer: 1
Q.13. The first concrete step to protect ozone layer was?
(1) Paris climate Agreement
(2) Kyoto Protocol
(3) Rio Summit
(4) Montreal protocol
Answer: 4
Q.14. The concept of urban Agglomeration in India was adopted for the first time in which census year?
(1) 1951
(2) 1961
(3) 1971
(4) 1981
Answer: 3
Q.15. In which year India became a signatory to Ramsar convention for conserving potential wetlands?
(1) 1980
(2) 1982
(3) 1992
(4) 2001
Answer: 2
Q.16. Choose the correct statements with reference to Geographical cycle of Davis:
(A) Landscape is a function of structure, process and time
(B) Landforms are evolved by interaction of endogenetic and exogenetic forces
(C) No river can erode its valley beyond base level (sea level)
(D) Davis used the term primarumpf to represent the characteristic landscape before upliftment.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, B and C Only
(2) B, C and D Only
(3) A, C and D Only
(4) A, B and D Only
Answer: 1
Q.17. Arrange the following states of India in ascending order on the basis of sex ratio as per 2011 census:
(A) Kerala
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Chhattisgarh
(D) Andhra Pradesh
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) C, D, B, A
(2) D, C, B, A
(3) D, C, A, B
(4) D, B, C, A
Answer: 1
Q.18. Which one of the following is an advantage of vector data model?
(1) Efficient for network analysis
(2) Complex data structure
(3) Difficult overlay operations
(4) Not compatible with satellite imagery
Answer: 1
Q.19. Identify the local winds which are hot?
(A) Sirocco
(B) Bora
(C) Santa Ana
(D) Khamsin
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) A, B and D Only
(2) A, B and C Only
(3) B, C and D Only
(4) A, C and D Only
Answer: 4
Q.20. Arrange the following important peaks in ascending order of altitude?
(A) Nanda Devi
(B) Badrinath
(C) Kanchenjunga
(D) Namcha Barwa
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B, A, D, C
(2) B, D, C, A
(3) D, B, A, C
(4) B, D, A, C
Answer: 4
Q.21. In Koppen’s classification the ‘Cs’ type of climate represents to:
(1) Western Europe type of climate
(2) China type of climate
(3) Mediterranean type of climate
(4) Polar climate
Answer: 3
Q.22. Arrange the following major ports of India from North to South:
(A) Marmagao
(B) Vishakhapatnam
(C) Paradwip
(D) Kandla
(E) Mangalore
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) D, C, B, A, E
(2) D, C, B, E, A
(3) C, D, B, E, A
(4) C, D, B, A, E
Answer: 1
Q.23. Which of the following views is NOT associated with the possibilist Paradigm?
(A) The physical environment tends to provide the opportunity for a range of possible human responses.
(B) Man is not a passive being but an active force.
(C) Man is not a free agent.
(D) Man modifies the face of the Earth.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) A, B and C Only
(2) B, C and D Only
(3) A, B and D Only
(4) A, C and D Only
Answer: 3 (*Wrong Question)
Q.24. Which among the following statements are correct regarding Jet Streams?
(A) Jet stream are strong, regular winds which blow in the upper atmosphere
(B) There are two jet streams in each hemisphere
(C) The jet streams result from differences in equatorial and sub tropical air and between polar and sub-tropical air
(4) Greater the temperature difference, weaker the jet stream
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, B and D Only
(2) A, B and C Only
(3) B, C and D Only
(4) A, C and D Only
Answer: 2
Q.25. Match List – I with List – II:
List – I Passes
(A) Jelep La
(B) Shipki La
(C) Lipu Lekh
(D) Banihal Pass
List – II States
(I) Himachal Pradesh
(II) Jammu and Kashmir
(III) Sikkim
(IV) Uttarakhand
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Answer: 1
Q.26. Which among the following salt constitute the highest percentage of salt in the Oceans?
(1) Sodium Chloride
(2) Magnesium Chloride
(3) Magnesium Sulphate
(4) Calcium Sulphate
Answer: 1
Q.27. Name the instrument which is used to measure horizontal and vertical angles more precisely:
(1) Hypsometer
(2) Clinometer
(3) Theodolite
(4) Aneroid Barometer
Answer: 3
Q.28. Which of the following religions belongs to the traditional form of religion?
(1) Buddhism
(2) Shintoism
(3) Judaism
(4) Shamanism
Answer: 4
Q.29. Who named his new scientific geography “Erdbeschreibung”?
(1) Hettner
(2) Ratzel
(3) Ritter
(4) Humboldt
Answer: 4
Q.30. Which among the following statements are NOT true?
(A) Fog is cloud at ground level
(B) Dew is the indirect deposition of water droplets onto a surface
(C) Frost is a deposit of water droplets on vegetation
(D) Snow is frozen precipitation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B and C Only
(2) A and B Only
(3) B and D Only
(4) A and D Only
Answer: 1
Q.31. Match List – I with List – II:
List – I Lake
(A) Naina Lake
(B) Pulicate Lake
(C) Lonar Lake
(D) Wular Lake
List – II Type
(I) Crater
(II) Corrie
(III) Fresh-water
(IV) Lagoon
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Answer: 2
Q.32. Among the given definition, choose the correct one that precisely defines Standard Deviation:
(1) The standard deviation is the positive square root of the mean of the squares of deviations from the mean
(2) It is that value of a variable which occurs maximum number of times
(3) It is the value which divides the number of observations in such a way that half the value are less than this value and half of them are more
(4) A measure of dispersion derives from the average of deviations from some central value
Answer: 1
Q.33. Arrange the following theories related to urban settlement in chronological order as per the year it was proposed (old to new):
(A) The sector theory
(B) Rank size rule
(C) The multiple nuclei theory
(D) The concentric or zonal theory
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, B, C, D
(2) D, A, C, B
(3) A, C, B, D
(4) D, C, A, B
Answer: 2
Q.34. The Government of India approved the Bharatmala Pariyojana covering the length of 34,800 kms in which year?
(1) 2015
(2) 2017
(3) 2019
(4) 2021
Answer: 2
Q.35. The concept of ‘Ecological niche’ was first introduced by:
(1) J. Grinel
(2) Haeckel
(3) Odum
(4) Macfadyen
Answer: 1
Q.36. Ullman’s Model of Spatial Interaction does NOT introduce which of the following concept?
(1) Transferability
(2) Intervening Opportunities
(3) Complementarity
(4) Distance-Decay
Answer: 4
Q.37. What is true about Rossby waves?
(A) Rossby waves are meandering rivers of air
(B) There are two to four waves in each hemisphere
(C) They are formed by major relief barriers such as the Rockies and the Andes.
(D) They are formed by thermal differences and uneven land-sea interfaces
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, C and D Only
(2) A, B and D Only
(3) A, B and C Only
(4) B, C and D Only
Answer: 1 (#2)
Q.38. In the given options identify the important components of the Green Revolution in India?
(A) Land Reforms
(B) Command Area Development
(C) Drought Prone Area Programme
(D) Rural Electrification
(E) Urban Roads and Marketing
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, B and C Only
(2) C, D and E Only
(3) A, B and D Only
(4) B, D and E Only
Answer: 2
Q.39. Which of the following statements are NOT correct for the Indian Jute Industry?
(A) Most of the jute producing areas went to Bangladesh, resulting in acute shortage of raw jute.
(B) The Ganga Brahmaputra delta grows about 10% of India’s jute and provides raw materials.
(C) The input cost for jute product in India is quite high.
(D) Dry climate is very convenient for spinning and weaving.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) B and D Only
(2) A, B and C Only
(3) B, C and D Only
(4) B and C Only
Answer: 1
Q.40. Who propounded the concept of “Innovation Diffusion as a Spatial Process”?
(1) Ullman
(2) Morrill
(3) Hagerstrand
(4) Reilly
Answer: 3
Q.41. Which of the following statements are correct for language?
(A) It is a distinct linguistic form peculiar to a region or social group.
(B) It is a great form of socialization.
(C) It is a critical cultural element.
(D) It is necessary for historical transmission and cultural accumulation.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) A, B and C Only
(2) A, C and D Only
(3) B, C and D Only
(4) A, B and D Only
Answer: 3
Q.42. Match List – I to List – II:
List – I (Geographic Concept)
(A) Reine Geography
(B) Anthropological Geography
(C) Political Geography
(D) Regional Geography
List – II (Geographer)
(I) Ratzel
(II) Bowman
(III) Busching
(IV) Hartshorne
Choose the correct answer from the options below:
(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
Answer: 2
Q.43. Richard Hartshorne has recognized four distinct approaches to the study of political geography of a State, these are:
(A) Power analysis approach
(B) Historical approach
(C) Geographical approach
(D) Functional approach
(E) Morphological approach
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) A, B, C and D Only
(2) A, B, C and E Only
(3) A, B, D and E Only
(4) B, C, D and E Only
Answer: 3
Q.44. The geopolitics of world natural resources is influenced by all of the following factors except?
(1) Unequal distribution of resources across regions
(2) Technological advancements in resource extraction
(3) Climate change policies
(4) Complete self-sufficiency of all nations in resource production
Answer: 4
Q.45. Match List – I with List – II:
List – I Minerals
(A) Silver
(B) Bauxite
(C) Copper
(D) Manganese
List – II Reserves
(I) Koraput
(II) Zawar
(III) Ratnagiri
(IV) Balaghat
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(A) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(A) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(A) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Answer: 4
Q.46. Match List – I with List – II:
List – I Fundamental Concept
(A) Market Area
(B) Isodapane
(C) Isolate Estate
(D) Space Cost Curve
List – II Theory
(I) Weber
(II) Losch
(III) David Smith
(IV) Von Thunen
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
Answer: 1
Q.47. Match List – I with List – II:
List – I
Theories of Mountain Building
(A) Geosynclinal orogen
(B) Thermal contraction
(C) Sliding continent
(D) Thermal convection
List – II
Propounded by
(I) Daly
(II) Holmes
(III) Jeffreys
(IV) Kober
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
Answer: 1
Q.48. How does climate change impact global geo-politics?
(1) By reducing migration flows and economic disparities
(2) By weakening the influence of regional organizations
(3) By increasing geopolitical tensions over water and energy resources
(4) By decreasing the importance of renewable energy sources
Answer: 3
Q.49. Arid conditions are caused by a number of factors like:
(A) global atmospheric circulation
(B) continentality
(C) warm offshore currents
(D) rain shadow effects
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, B and C Only
(2) A, C and D Only
(3) B, C and D Only
(4) A, B and D Only
Answer: 4
Q.50. The city of Mumbai is located in the centre of which region?
(1) Kathiwar
(2) Konkan
(3) Northern Circars
(4) Vidarbha
Answer: 2
Q.51. Match List – I with List – II:
List – I Local names of Grasslands
(A) Pustaz
(B) Pampas
(C) Bush Veld
(D) Downs
List – II Countries
(I) I. Argentina
(II) South Africa
(III) Australia
(IV) Hungary
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
Answer: 1
Q.52. Which of the following electoral reforms in India introduced the NOTA (None of the Above) option in electronic voting machines?
(1) Supreme Court ruling of 2013
(2) Representation of the people Act, 1951
(3) 61st Constitutional Amendment
(4) Election Commission Guidelines of 2000
Answer: 1
Q.53. Arrange the following major gases as per their volume in the atmosphere in increasing order:
(A) Carbon Dioxide
(B) Argon
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Oxygen
(E) Hydrogen
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) E, A, B, D, C
(2) A, E, B, D, C
(3) B, A, E, D, C
(4) A, E, B, C, D
Answer: 1
Q.54.Arrange the following Greek geographers in chronological order (Earlier to Latest):
(A) Herodotus
(B) Eratosthenes
(C) Hippocrates
(D) Ptolemy
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, C, B, D
(2) A, B, C, D
(3) A, D, B, C
(4) A, C, D, B
Answer: 1
Q.55. Why is the Indian Ocean region geopolitically significant?
(1) It connects major global energy trade routes
(2) It has the largest landmass in the world
(3) It is the only ocean with no international disputes
(4) It is entirely controlled by India
Answer: 1
Q.56. Arrange the following maps on the basis of their scale in descending order (Large to Small scale)
(A) Topographical Map
(B) Atlas Map
(C) Cadastral Map
(D) Wall Map
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, D, B, C
(2) C, A, D, B
(3) A, C, B, D
(4) C, D, A, B
Answer: 2
Q.57. The subordination of women by men as the primary inequality in human society is the main tenet of which approach in geography?
(1) Humanism
(2) Structuralism
(3) Feminism
(4) Postmodernism
Answer: 3
Q.58. Match List – I with List – II:
List – I Theories
(A) Progressive Wave Theory
(B) Stationary Wave Theory
(C) Submarine Density Current Theory
(D) Turbidity Current Theory
List – II Propounded by
(I) Holimann
(II) Willian Whewell
(III) W.M. Davis
(IV) R.A. Haris
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Answer: 2
Q.59. Several international boundaries follow large and small rivers, choose the correct one:
(A) R. Sutlej between India and Pakistan
(B) R. Salween between Myanmar and Thailand
(C) R. Amur and R. Ussuri between China and Russia
(D) R. Congo between Zambia and Congo
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B, C and D Only
(2) A, B and D Only
(3) A, C and D Only
(4) A, B and C Only
Answer: 4
Q.60. Which of the following statements are correct with reference to circum pacific belt?
(A) Circum-Pacific belt accounts about 80% of the active volcanoes of the world.
(B) This belt is also called as the ‘fire girdle’ of the Pacific Ocean.
(C) Here volcanoes are primarily caused due to collision of convergent plates along the Benioff zones.
(D) This zone is also known for divergent plate margins.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) A, B and C Only
(2) B, C and D Only
(3) A, C and D Only
(4) A, B and D Only
Answer: 1
Q.61. Among the Public Sector dockyards in India which Shipyard has the highest capacity for ship-repairing?
(1) Goa Shipyard Ltd.
(2) Mazgaon Dock
(3) Hindustan Shipyard Ltd.
(4) Cochin Shipyard Ltd.
Answer: 4
Q.62. Arrange the following Zones of land use around the central city based on Von Thunen’s theory (from centre to periphery):
(A) Firewood and Timber production
(B) Crop Farming, Fallow and Pasture
(C) Three Field System
(D) Crop Farming without fallow
(E) Livestock Ranching
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, D, C, B, E
(2) A, B, C, D, E
(3) A, B, D, C, E
(4) A, D, B, C, E
Answer: 4
Q.63. Arrange the following stages of growth of cities as propounded by Mumford:
(A) Polis
(B) Metropolis
(C) Tyrannopolis
(D) Eopolis
Megalopolis
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, D, B, E, C
(2) D, A, E, B, C
(3) D, A, B, E, C
(4) A, D, E, B, C
Answer: 1
Q.64. In the context of federalism in India, which of the following constitutional amendments granted more financial and administrative powers to local governments?
(1) 42nd and 44th Amendments
(2) 73rd and 74th Amendments
(3) 44th and 46th Amendments
(4) 91th and 92nd Amendments
Answer: 2
Q.65. The incoming solar radiation is known as:
(1) Isolation
(2) Insolation
(3) Radiation
(4) Izolation
Answer: 2
Q.66. Arrange the following Natural Hazards/Disasters of India in chronological order (earlier to latest):
(A) Tsunami (off Tamil Nadu Coast)
(B) Bhuj Earthquake
(C) Super Cyclone of Orissa
(D) Koyna Earthquake
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) C, D, A, B
(2) D, C, B, A
(3) B, A, C, D
(4) A, B, D, C
Answer: 2
Q.67. Match List – I with List – II:
List – I Local Names of Tropical Cyclones
(A) Hurricanes
(B) Taifu
(C) Bagio
(D) Willy willy
List – II Countries
(I) Philippines
(II) USA
(III) Australia
(IV) Japan
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Answer: 4
Q.68. The Geographical information system has many important components, identify the one which is NOT an important component?
(1) Landforms
(2) Hardware
(3) People
(4) Software
Answer: 1
Q.69. A marginal worker is the one who had worked for less than ____ days in a year.
(1) 183
(2) 190
(3) 185
(4) 193
Answer: 1
Q.70. Choose the cold currents among the given ocean currents of the world:
(A) Brazil current
(B) Falkland current
(C) Benguela current
(D) California current
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, B and D Only
(2) B, C and D Only
(3) A, C and D Only
(4) A, B and C Only
Answer: 2
Q.71. Which among the following statements are correct with regard to ‘geopolitics’?
(A) The term ‘geopolitics’ was coined by Rudolf Kjellen
(B) ‘Geopolitic’ means the science of places
(C) ‘Lebensraum’ means living space
(D) According to German geopoliticians state had the biological necessity to grow
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) A, B and C Only
(2) A, C and D Only
(3) A, B and D Only
(4) B, C and D Only
Answer: 2
Q.72. Which of the following economic activity is an example of Quaternary group of economic activities?
(1) Retailing
(2) Wholesaling
(3) Education
(4) Transport
Answer: 3
Q.73. Match List – I with List – II:
List – I Volcanos
(A) Hekla
(B) Cotapaxi
(C) St. Helens
(D) Mt. Mayon
List – II Countries
(I) Equador
(II) USA
(III) Iceland
(IV) Philippines
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
Answer: 4
Q.74. Arrange the following states on the basis of their total area in ascending order:
(A) Uttarakhand
(B) Jharkhand
(C) Telengana
(D) Chhattisgarh
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, B, C, D
(2) B, A, C, D
(3) A, B, D, C
(4) B, A, D, C
Answer: 1
Q.75. Who created the concept of “City-Region”?
(1) Dickinson
(2) Gottman
(3) Geddes
(4) Zipf
Answer: 1
Q.76. Match List – I with List – II:
List – I Author
(A) G.T. Trewartha
(B) H.S. Shryock
(C) John I. Clarke
(D) R.C. Chandna
List – II Name of Book
(I) Geography of Population
(II) A Geography of Population: World Patterns
(III) The Methods and Materials of Demography
(IV) Population Geography
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Answer: 2
Q.77. Arrange the following indigenous people of India on the basis of their primary habitat from South to North?
(A) Minas
(B) Todas
(C). Bakarwals
(D) Nagas
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, B, C, D
(2) A, B, D, C
(3) B, A, C, D
(4) B, A, D, C
Answer: 4
Q.78. The process of cumulative causation was put forward by which author?
(1) Albert Hirschmann
(2) John Friedmann
(3) Gunnar Myrdal
(4) W. Rostow
Answer: 3
Q.79. Indian GPS System known as NavIC (Navigation with Indian Constellation) is designed with a constellation of ____ satellites.
(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) 9
Answer: 3
Q.80. Which is the specialised form of tourism in which people experience relatively untouched natural environments?
(1) Mass Tourism
(2) Cultural Tourism
(3) Medical Tourism
(4) Eco Tourism
Answer: 4
Q.81. Which of the following is the oldest Indian rock system?
(1) Purana
(2) Archean
(3) Aryan
(4) Dravidian
Answer: 2
Q.82. Consider the following statements regarding ‘National Population Register’ (NPR) and choose the correct one:
(A) Objective is to prepare a register of all residents of India.
(B) The NPR is intended to serve as the basis for the National Register of Citizens (NRC).
(C) The NPR was compiled in 2000 alongside the 2001 census.
(D) The creation of the NPR is mandated by the Citizenship Act 1965.
(E) NPR was created post-2008 Mumbai attacks.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) A, D and E Only
(2) A, B and E Only
(3) B, C and D Only
(4) B, D and E Only
Answer: 2
Q.83. Match List I with List II:
List I Terms
(A) Death rate
(B) Crude birth rate
(C) Natural Increase of population
(D) General fertility rate
List II Explanation
(I) Number of deaths per thousand population
(II) Ratio between number of births and number of female in productive age
(III) Ratio between the numbers of births and total population
(IV) Births over death per thousand of population
Choose the correct answer from the options below:
(1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(2) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(4) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
Answer: 4
Q.84. Due to the practice of head hunting in the past, compact settlements developed at the tops of hills and ridges in which state?
(1) Tamil Nadu
(2) Nagaland
(3) Orissa
(4) Andhra Pradesh
Answer: 2
Q.85. Which of the following regions are known for large-scale agro-industrialisation?
(A) Mato Grosso in Brazil
(B) The Paris Basin
(C) The Ganga Plains in India
(D) The Murray-Darling Basin, Australia
(E) The Pampas in Argentina
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) A, B, C and D Only
(2) B, C, D and E Only
(3) A, C and D Only
(4) A, B, D, E Only
Answer: 4
Q.86. Kates Behavioristic approach to Geography is based on which of the following assumptions:
(A) Men Makes Choices
(B) Choices are made on the basis of knowledge
(C) Men are rational while taking decision
(D) Information is neither evaluated nor determined
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B, C and D Only
(2) A, B and D Only
(3) A, B and C Only
(4) A, C and D Only
Answer: 3
Q.87. Arrange the following world cities in descending order on the basis of their size of population:
(A) A. Delhi
(B) B. Dhaka
(C) C. Tokyo
(D) D. Shanghai
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, C, B, D
(2) C, A, D, B
(3) A, D, C, B
(4) C, D, B, A
Answer: 2
Q.88. Arrange the following Health Care Policies of India in chronological order on the basis of their launch year?
(A) Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Package Insurance scheme
(B) Mission Indradhanush
(C) Ayushman Bharat – Digital Mission
(D) Ayushman Bharat – Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B, D, C, A
(2) B, D, A, C
(3) D, B, A, C
(4) D, B, C, A
Answer: 2
Q.89. Match List – I with List – II:
List – I Concept
(A) Zusammenhang
(B) Kulturland schaft
(C) Genres de vie
(D) Raison d’ etre
List – II Geographer
(I) Schaefer
(II) Ritter
(III) Schluter
(IV) Blache
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(3) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(4) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
Answer: 1
Q.90. In contrast to Mackinder’s Heartland Theory, Spykman’s Rimland Theory emphasizes which regions of strategic importance?
(1) Coastal Fringes of Eurasia
(2) Continental core of Eurasia
(3) Arctic region
(4) African continent
Answer: 1
Comprehension: (91-95)
Read the following passage and answer all the questions accordingly.
Tectonic forces are the primary factor that drives the dynamic processes that form the crust of the Earth, which are referred to as earth movements. These movements can be classified into sudden and slow processes. The phenomenon known as seismicity describes the existence of earthquakes, which are caused by the movement of tectonic plates. The intensity of seismic activities are measured using the Richter scale. Folding occurs when compressional forces act on rock layers, causing them to bend. This process creates geological features such as anticlines and synclines. Faulting happens when stress exceeds the strength of rocks, leading to fractures and displacement along fault lines. Types of faults include normal, reverse, and strike-slip faults. Vulcancity involves the movement of magma from the Earth’s interior to the surface, resulting in volcanic eruptions. When it comes to
Q.91. What is the primary distinction between an active and dormant volcano?
(1) An active volcano continuously erupts, while a dormant one never erupts again.
(2) A dormant volcano has erupted in the past but is currently inactive, whereas an active volcano erupts periodically or continuously.
(3) A dormant volcano is characterised by shallow magma chambers, whereas an active volcano has deep magma reservoirs.
(4) Active volcanoes are always found at tectonic plate boundaries, whereas dormant ones exist within stable continental interiors.
Answer: 2
Q.92. What is the primary cause of seismicity?
(1) Magma movement
(2) Tidal forces
(3) Sudden release of energy along faults
(4) Folding of rock layers
Answer: 3
Q.93. Why is the study of Earth movements crucial for human societies?
(1) It helps determines land ownership based on geological shift
(2) It aids in predicting weather conditions and ocean currents
(3) It ensures that continental drift is reverse through technological advancements
(4) It allows for better understanding and mitigation of natural hazards like earthquakes and volcanic eruptions
Answer: 4
Q.94. What type of fault is created due to horizontal displacement of rock layers?
(1) Normal fault
(2) Strike-slip fault
(3) Reverse fault
(4) Over thrust fault
Answer: 2
Q.95. A reverse fault accrues when:
(1) The hanging wall moves upward
(2) The hanging wall moves downward
(3) The footwall moves downwards
(4) No movement accurs
Answer: 1
Comprehension (96-100)
Read the following passage and answer all the questions accordingly.
Migration is a fundamental demographic process involving the movements of individuals or groups from one geographical location to another, driven by economic, social, political, and environmental factors. It can be categorized into voluntary and involuntary migration, internal and international migration, or temporary and permanent migration. Economic opportunities, better living conditions, education, and conflict are primary drivers of migration. Theories such as Ravenstein’s Laws of migration, Lee’s Push-Pull Theory, and World System Theory explain migration pattern and motivations. Migration has significant socio-economic impacts on both origin and destination regions. While receiving areas benefit from labor supply and cultural diversity, challenges such as pressure on infrastructure, labor market competition, and social integration arise. In contrast, source regions may experience brain drain or economic loss but benefit from remittances sent by migrants. The concept of transnationalism further highlights how migrants maintain connections across borders. Migration policies worldwide seek to balance economic needs, national security, and humanitarian concerns, influencing global migration flows and their long-term consequences.
Q.96. Which of the following best describes the phenomenon where migration leads to a decline in working age population in the origin country?
(1) Migration Selectivity
(2) Population transition
(3) Demographic inversion
(4) Ageing effect
Answer: 1
Q.97. According to Lee’s Push-Pull Theory, which of the following is NOT considered a “push factor” for migration?
(1) Political instability
(2) Employment opportunities
(3) Natural disasters
(4) War and conflict
Answer: 2
Q.98. Which of the following best describes “remittance dependency” in migration studies?
(1) When migrants rely on financial aid from international Organisation
(2) When host countries depend on foreign workers for economic growth
(3) When migrants are financially dependent on their employers abroad
(4) When home countries become heavily reliant on money sent by emigrants
Answer: 4
Q.99. The concept of “brain drain” is most closely associated with which type of migration?
(1) Circular migration
(2) Forced migration
(3) Skilled migration
(4) Seasonal migration
Answer: 3
Q.100. Which of the following is an example of involuntary migration?
(1) Relocating for higher education
(2) Moving to another country for a job transfer
(3) Displacement due to armed conflict
(4) Shifting to a bigger city for better lifestyle
Answer: 3
Our Available & Upcoming Books:
File Details:
PDF Name: JUNE/JULY Geography Paper 2 NTA UGC NET 
Language: English
Size: 700 kb
No. of Pages: 27
Download Link: Click Here to Download –
ATTEMPT WBSLST LATEST MOCK TEST JULY 2025
Join our Whatsapp Group for WB-SLST FREE Mock Test 2025
Click here to Join Whatsapp Group
Last 10 Years Geography Questions Papers NTA UGC NET