DEC 2022 GEOGRAPHY QUESTIONS PAPER SHIFT I NTA UGC NET
This is the official Questions Paper and Answer Key for the Paper 2 geography conducted on FEB 2023, taken from nta ugcnet site
Note: This paper contains 100 multiple choice questions, each questions carrying two (2) marks. Attempt all of them.
(PDF) For download PDF file of question paper go to the bottom of this post.
Q.1. Which were the leading countries in the world in terms of forest depletion between 1999 to 2015 as per the Food and Agriculture Organization?
(1) Brazil and Domenic Republic of Congo
(2) Russia and China
(3) Brazil and Indonesia
(4) Russia and Canada
Answer: 3
Q.2. Which are the largest and second largest natural gas producing countries of the world according to United Nations Energy Statistics 2022?
(1) USA and Russia
(2) Russia and USA
(3) USA and Saudi Arabia
(4) Russia and Saudi Arabia
Answer: 1
Q.3. Which of the following South American countries is part of OPEC bloc?
(1) Argentina
(2) Uruguay
(3) Brazil
(4) Venezuela
Answer: 4
Q.4. Which of the following is applied in Image Enhancement procedure of digital image interpretation?
(1) Radiometric Correction
(2) Geometric Correction
(3) Spatial feature manipulation
(4) Noise removal
Answer: 3
Q.5. When rocks fracture in earth crust and again the same rock masses move in different directions it is
(1) Fold
(2) Joint
(3) Fault
(4) Crack
Answer: 3
Q.6. Which one of the following landforms is formed due to tectonic forces?
(1) Rift Valley
(2) Blind Valley
(3) U-shape Valley
(4) V-shape Valley
Answer: 1
Q.7. Which of the following is not a fast type of mass movement?
(1) Rock fall
(2) Mud flow
(3) Bed rock slump
(4) Solifluction
Answer: 4
Q.8. Which of the following factor is not correct about development of tropical cyclone?
(1) Tropical cyclones are formed on ocean in low latitudes within 5° of the equator
(2) The temperature of ocean must be greater than 26.5°C.
(3) Weak wind with little change in speed or direction with height needed.
(4) The atmosphere over the ocean must have high moisture content.
Answer: 1
Q.9. Which of the following is not correct about Koppen’s climate classification?
(1) Af – Tropical Humid Climate
(2) BS – Dry Desert Climate
(3) Cfb – Marine West Coast Climate
(4) ET – Tundra Climate
Answer: 2
Q.10. In the three-cell circulation model, the energy that drives Hadley cell is supplied by which of the following?
(1) The energy derived from Coriolis force.
(2) The energy from the westerlies
(3) The energy transferred from sub-tropical high pressure cells to doldrums.
(4) The latent heat released during the formation of cumulonimbus clouds.
Answer: 4
Q.11. “Beaufort Scale” is a measure of
(1) Wind Velocity
(2) Wind Direction
(3) Humidity
(4) Snowfall
Answer: 1
Q.12. Which ocean has the largest continental slope area?
(1) Arctic Ocean
(2) Pacific Ocean
(3) Indian Ocean
(4) Atlantic Ocean
Answer: 4
Q.13. Which of the following is most prone to Tsunami strikes?
(1) East Coast of Africa
(2) Atlantic Shoreline
(3) European Shoreline
(4) Circum-Pacific Shoreline
Answer: 4
Q.14. Irminger current flows in which of the following ocean waters?
(1) South Atlantic
(2) North Atlantic
(3) North Pacific
(5) South Pacific
Answer: 2
Q.15. Which one of the following mineral nutrients is not the macro-nutrient required by plants?
(1) Manganese
(2) Magnesium
(3) Phosphorus
(4) Sulphur
Answer: 1
Q.16. Which one of the following option correctly describes the regressive population?
(1) An unchanging fertility and mortality rates over a long period of time.
(2) An increasing birth rate and high mortality producing a wide base pyramid.
(3) A declining birth rate and low mortality rate producing a narrow base pyramid.
(4) A high birth rate and high mortality producing a wide base pyramid.
Answer: 3
Q.17. What does replacement rate represents?
(1) It represents total births per 1000 female population in reproductive age group
(2) It represents male births per 1000 female population in reproductive age group
(3) It represents female births per 1000 female population in reproductive age group.
(4) Number of expected births per 1000 population.
Answer: 3
Q.18. Which one of the following sources of population data involves compulsory and legal registration of vital events such as births, deaths, marriage etc.?
(1) Population census
(2) Sample Surveys
(3) Registers of Population
(4) Epidemiological Reports
Answer: 3
Q.19. “Po river basin” is well known industrial region of which of the following countries?
(1) China
(2) Turkey
(3) Italy
(4) Uruguay
Answer: 3
Q.20. “Transportation and the Societal Framework” work is associated with which of the following scholar
(1) Edward Ullman
(2) M. E. Hurst
(3) G.K. Zipf
(4) John Friedman
Answer: 2
Q.21. Identify the main products of truck farming and factory farming, respectively.
(1) Vegetables and Timber woods
(2) Corn and Meat
(3) Vegetables and Poultry
(4) Flowers and Fruits
Answer: 3
Q.22. Which country specializes in growing tulip flowers?
(1) Netherlands
(2) Denmark
(3) New Zealand
(4) Lebanon
Answer: 1
Q.23. Consider the following pairs of localized diseases and area:
(A) Acute Eucephilitis Syndrome – Western U.P
(B) Lathyrus – Chhota Nagpur Plateau
(C) Fluorosis – Ganga Plain
(D) Goitre – Himalayan region
Choose the correct set of pairs:
(1) A and B only
(2) B and C only
(3) B and D only
(4) A and C only
Answer: 3
Q.24. Which one of the following parameter is not proposed by Kristof to distinguish frontiers and boundaries?
(1) Frontier are outer oriented whereas boundaries are inner oriented
(2) Frontier are areal and boundaries are linear in character.
(3) The frontier is a manifestation of centrifugal forces whereas boundary is that of centripetal one
(4) A frontier is an integrating factor between states on either side, a boundary on the contrary, is a separating factor.
Answer: 2
Q.25. Which one of the following information is not collected as part of the National Population Register (NPR), census of India 2011?
(1) Date of Birth
(2) Educational Status
(3) Sex
(4) Aadhaar Number
Answer: 4
Q.26. Which one of the following holy places of Buddhism is located at the eastern most longitude?
(1) Sarnath
(2) Bodh Gaya
(3) Sravasti
(4) Rajagrha
Answer: 4
Q.27. Which of the following district matches correctly with its major tribal group?
(1) Sabarkantha-Santhals
(2) Tawang – Adi
(3) Bidar – Bhil
(4) Birbhum – Gonds
Answer: 2
Q.28. Which of the following contains principles of trigonometry?
(1) Rihlah
(2) Geographia Generalis
(3) Suryasiddhanta
(4) Anthropogeographie
Answer: 3
Q.29. Which of the following is remembered for prediction of an eclipse of the Sun and cosmology based on water?
(1) Thales
(2) Homer
(3) Anaximander
(4) Hecataeus
Answer: 1
Q.30. Which of the following is accused of “leaving ge out of geography”?
(1) Guyot
(2) Ritter
(3) Hartshorne
(4) Humboldt
Answer: 3
Q.31. The principle of “terrestrial whole” was advocated by which of the following experts?
(1) Hartshorne
(2) Blache
(3) Ritter
(4) Humboldt
Answer: 2
Q.32. Which of the following statements is not true about Pearson’s product moment correlation coefficient ‘r’?
(1) ‘r’ is simply a measure of the degree to which the two variables vary together
(2) ‘r’ is a non parametric measure of the relationship between the two variables measured on nominal and ordinal scale
(3) The value of ‘r’ lies between – 1.0 and + 1.0
(4) ‘r’ value is liable to spurious high if outliers are present in the data.
Answer: 2
Q.33. Which type of scattering is responsible for red sunsets?
(1) Rayleigh
(2) Mie
(3) Non-selective
(4) Diffuse
Answer: 1
Q.34. The measured distance between two road shown on a photograph is 10 mm on the photograph and 50 mm on the map. If the RF of the map is 1 : 50,000, which one the following is the scale of the photograph.
(1) 1 : 50000
(2) 1 : 250000
(3) 1 : 100000
(4) 1 : 25000
Answer: 2
Q.35. Which of the following curve represents the proportion of Earth’s land and sea floor areas?
(1) Altimetric curve
(2) Lorenze curve
(3) Hyetograph curve
(4) Hypsograhic curve
Answer: 4
Q.36. Which one of the following rivers and associated projects is correctly matched in terms of location of projects in correct sequence from upper course to lower course of river?
(1) Narmada River : Onkareshwar Dam – Narmada Sagar Dam – Sardar Sarovar Dam
(2) Chambal River : Gandi Sagar – Jawahar Sagar – Rana Pratap Sagar
(3) Satluj River : Nathpa Jhakri – Harike Barrage – Bhakra Dam
(4) Damodar River : Tenughat – Panchet – Durgapur Barrage.
Answer: 4
Q.37. According to Koppen’s climatic classification of India large part of Arunachal Pradesh is represented by which of the following set of alphabets?
(1) Cwg
(2) ET
(3) Aw
(4) Dfc
Answer: 4
Q.38. Which of the following rivers have the largest drainage basin area?
(1) Kaveri
(2) Chambal
(3) Narmada
(4) Sutlej
Answer: 2
Q.39. Which of the following steel plants in India is located near the coal mines?
(1) Rourkela
(2) Bhadravati
(3) Bokaro
(4) Bhilai
Answer: 3
Q.40. In which one of the following collision zone, plates permanently unite with no further tectonic activity?
(1) Spreading zone
(2) Subduction zone
(3) Continental suture
(4) Transform zone
Answer: 3
Q.41. Which of the following statements are true about seismic waves?
(A) The velocity of P-wave depends upon density and distortion to compression of rock traversed.
(B) P-wave travels faster than S-wave
(C) L-wave follows zig-zag path and arrive later than P and S-waves
(D) The velocity of S- wave depends upon density and resistance of rock transversed.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A and B Only
(2) C and D Only
(3) A and C. Only
(4) B and C only
Answer: 4
Q.42. Which of the following statement is/are correct about plate tectonics?
(A) Plate tectonics are major forces behind formation of topographic features of earth surface
(B) Mid-oceanic ridges are destructive plate boundary with deep-focus earthquake
(C) Radiogenic heat is the force behind plate tectonic
(D) Rocks break and move along plane of breakage is known as fold.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A Only
(2) A and C Only
(3) B and D Only
(4) B and C Only
Answer: 2
Q.43. Identify the correct statements from the following:
(A) The northern western Himalayan states are more vulnerable to earthquakes and landslides.
(B) There is a high possibility of occurrence of volcanoes in Himalayan mountains
(C) The prediction of earthquake is possible now a days
(D) Anthropogenic activities are accelerating geomorphic hazards in Himalayan states.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A and B Only
(2) B and C Only
(3) A and C Only
(4) A and D Only
Answer: 4
Q.44. Which of the following is/are non-structural measures used to mitigate floods?
(A) Maintaining wetlands
(B) Prevention of over-bank spilling by the construction of embankments and flood walls.
(C) Flood forecasting and warning services.
(D) Disaster relief, flood fighting and public health measures.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A and B Only
(2) A and C Only
(3) B. C and D Only
(4) A, C and D Only
Answer: 4
Q.45. Which of the following organic molecules contain nitrogen?
(A) Amino Acids
(B) Ozone
(C) Peptides
(D) Proteins
(E) Carbon Monoxide
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A and B Only
(2) B and C Only
(3) A, C and D Only
(4) A, D and E Only
Answer: 3
Q.46. Which of the following options correctly represent the different categories of work status as per the Census of India, 2011?
(A) 0-3 months
(B) 3-6 months
(C) 0-60 months
(D) 6-12 months
(E) 1-2 year
Choose the correct from the options given below:
(1) A, B, D, E only
(2) C, D, E only
(3) B, D, E only
(4) A, B, D only
Answer: 4
Q.47. Which of the following elements accurately represent features of urban morphology of a town?
(A) Internal Structure and arrangement of towns
(B) Arrangement of roads and building in town
(C) Functional zones within a region district
(D) History of development of country/region
(E) Land uses planning in towns
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) A, B, C, D only
(2) A, B, C, E only
(3) A, B, E only
(4) A, B, D, E only
Answer: 3
Q.48. Which of the following statements are correct?
(A) Coffee is native plant of the Soother Ethiopian highlands.
(B) Merino sheep are kept chiefly in the drier and warmer regions of temperate latitudes
(C) The most important factor affecting the silk industry is the availability of cheap female labour
(D) Robust coffee is the most important in world trade among there major types of coffee.
(E) Coffee contains tannin acid.
Choose the correct answer from the options gives below
(1) A, C and D only
(2) A, B, and C only
(3) B, D and E only
(4) C, D and E only
Answer: 2
Q.49. Which of the following measures are considered in the United Nations Human Development Index (HDI)?
(A) Per capita income
(B) Literacy
(C) Life expectancy
(D) Infant morality rate
(E) Per capita energy consumption
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) A, B, E only
(2) A, D, E only
(3) A, B, C only
(4) A, C, D only
Answer: 3
Q.50. Consider the following assumptions of regression analysis.
(A) The values of dependent variable are normally distributed.
(B) The values of residuals have skewed distribution
(C) The variance of dependent variable is constant for all values of the independent variable
(D) The values of the residuals are independent to each other
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B and D Only
(2) A and B Only
(3) A, C and D Only
(4) B, C and D Only
Answer: 3
Q.51. Consider the following statements about transport and infrastructure in India.
(A) National Highways constitutes less than 2 % share to the total road network of India.
(B) BRO (Border Road Organization) has taken up project for construction of infrastructural facilities like schools.
(C) Indian Railways has been divided into 16 zones for its operation and management.
(D) HBI (Hazira-Bijaypur-Jagdishpur) pipeline was developed to supply the crude petroleum for refining to the continental parts of India.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, B, C only
(2) B, C, D only
(3) A, C, D only
(4) A, B, D only
Answer: 1
Q.52. Which of the following statements are correct?
(A) Reddy is the dominant land owning caste of Tamil Nadu.
(B) Jat is the landless caste of Haryana and UP.
(C) Kurmi is the agrarian caste of eastern India.
(D) Patel in the land owing caste of western India.
(E) Namboodari are the brahmin of Kerala
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1). A, B, C Only
(2) B, C, D Only
(3) C, D, E Only
(4) B, C, E Only
Answer: 3
Q.53.Which of the following statements are correct about Chinese contribution to Geographical thought?
(A) Chinese scholars first developed a scientific method of cartography based on a rectangular co-ordinate system.
(B) They were the first who put forward the idea of the periodic nature of the monsoons.
(C) They recognized that Africa was a southward pointing triangle whereas on contemporary maps it was always represented as pointing eastwards.
(D) They opined that “geography is not concerned with the individual plants but rather with the plant and mal cover”
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(1) B and C Only
(2) C and D Only
(3) A and B Only
(4) A and C Only
Answer: 4
Q.54. Which of the following statements are correct?
(A) Knowledge Processing Outsourcing (KPO) comes under quinary services.
(B) Research and Development (R and D) activities and e-learning are example of Business Process Outsourcing (BPO).
(C) The BPO is distinct from KPO as it involves highly skilled workers.
(D) Outsourcing is coming to countries like India due to availability of cheap and skilled workers.
Choose the cost appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) B and D Only
(2) A and D Only
(3) A and C Only
(4) A, C, and D Only
Answer: 2
Q.55. Which of the following statements are correct?
(A) The total value of goods and services traded is considered to be the same of the trade.
(B) Volume of trade includes only trade of goods.
(C) India is founder of ASEAN bloc
(D) The practice of selling a commodity in two countries at a price that differs for reasons not related to costs is called dumping
Choose the most appropriate mower from the options given below:
(1) A and C Only
(2) A and D Only
(3) B, C and D Only
(4) B and D Only
Answer: 2
Q.56. Which of the following are correct statements?
(A) Fossil fuels and nuclear fuel are non-renewable sources of energy.
(B) The sources of renewable energy are mainly forces of nature that are sustainable and that usually cause huge environmental pollution
(C) Energy use is one of the main contributor to human-induced climate
(D) There are zero emissions of greenhouse gases from nuclear power plants.
(E) The relative prices of the different types of energy do not influence demand.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(1) A, C and D Only
(2) A, D and E Only
(3) B, D and E Only
(4) C, D and E Only
Answer: 1
Q.57. Which of the following statements are NOT correct with reference to Von Thunen’s Agricultural Location Theory?
(A) His idea were based on Weaver’s concept of economic rent.
(B) Navigable river or irrigation facilities do not have any impact on concentric land use zones.
(C) In real life farmers are always economic and national in decision making.
(D) Firewood and timber production zone has lost its validity.
(E) Isotropic surfaces are universal in Asia.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(1) A, C and E Only
(2) A, B and Only
(3) C, D and E Only
(4) A, B, C and E Only
Answer: 4
Q.58. Consider the following statements related to man-nature interaction.
(A) In Himalayan region pine trees are more prone to forest fire
(B) Shifting of cropping pattern from diversified crops to monoculture is a threat to food security in India.
(C) Slum habitation is associated with metropolitan cities only
(D) Alternate cultivation of wheat and rice in rabi and kharif season deteriorate the nitrogen in soil
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) A, B and C Only
(2) A, B and D Only
(3) B, C and D Only
(4) A, C and D Only
Answer: 2
Q.59. Consider the following statements related us infrastructure, literacy and natural resources of India?
(A) Indira Gandhi canal originates from Harike Barrage at the confluence of Satluj and Ravi rivers.
(B) Effective literacy rate is calculated as the number of literate persons out of the total population aged 5 years and above.
(C) Project Tiger was launched in 1973 with 9 tiger reserves and by 2018 it reached to 50 tiger reserve
(D) Gujarat accounts the second largest mangrove forests in India
Choose the next appropriate user from the options given below:
(1) A and B Only
(2) B and C Only
(3) C and D Only
(4) A and C Only
Answer: 3
Q.60. Which of the following trenches have depth less than 10,000 metres?
(A) Kurile Trench
(B) Puerto Rico Trench
(C) Java Trench
(D) Tonga Trench
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A and B Only
(2) B and C Only
(3) B and D Only
(4) C and D Only
Answer: 2
Q.61. Which of the following statements about impact of climate change on oceans are not true?
(A) The oceans have become less acidic over the past few decades
(B) The sea surface temperature has increased during the last century.
(C) Sea level has risen at the rate approximately six-tenth of an inch since 1880.
(D) The oceans will store less carbon-di-oxide in the coming years.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) A and B Only
(2) A and C Only
(3) B and C Only
(4) A and D Only
Answer: 4
Q.62. Which of the following statements are correct about Coriolis force?
(A) Coriolis force is present in all motion relative to Earth
(B) Coriolis force is maximum at equator and zero at pole.
(C) The strength of Coriolis force varies with speed of motion and also decreases with latitude.
(D) The amount of deflection caused by Coriolis force varies according to rotation of earth, longitude and object.
Choose the comet answer from the options given below:
(1) A and B only
(2) B and C Only
(3) C and D Only
(4) A and C Only
Answer: 4
Q.63. Which of the following data are sources of proxy data for climate change studies?
(A) historical documents
(B) sea floor sediments
(C) satellite data
(D) fossil pollen
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A and C Only
(2) B and C Only
(3) A, B and D Only
(4) C and D Only
Answer: 3
Q.64. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to the effects to global warming?
(A) Due to global warming it is believed that heat waves may increase in future.
(B) Tropical cyclones will be more intense.
(C) It is likely that area affected by droughts will decrease.
(D) The models indicate that some regions will experience significantly more precipitation and runoff.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A and C Only
(2) B and C Only
(3) A, B and D Only
(4) A, C and D Only
Answer: 3
Q.65. Which of the following statement’s is/are correct?
(A) The intensity and frequency of tropical cyclones is increasing but economic damage in decreasing.
(B) More tropical cyclones occur in Bay of Bengal than Arabian sea.
(C) The cyclonic systems developed in Pacific Ocean have impact on South-East Asia.
(D) Intensification of cyclone within 5 to 22 hrs. makes prediction of its track difficult.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A and B Only
(2) C Only
(3) A, B and C Only
(4) B, C and D Only
Answer: 4
Q.66. Match List I with List II
LIST – I
(Type of Volcanic eruption)
(A) Pelean type
(B) Hawaiin type
(C) Strombolian type
(D) Vulcanian type
LIST-II
(Characteristics)
(I) More fluid basaltic lava effusive and quite in nature.
(II) Less fluid basaltic lava and having explosive nature.
(III) Viscous lava, which do not remain liquid after contact with air.
(IV) Extremely viscous lava with violent character.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Answer: 1
Q.67. Match List I with List II
LIST- I (Term)
(A) Ethology
(B) Ecology
(C) Hexicology
(D) Ecological niche
LIST- II
(Coined First used by)
(I) Ernst Haeckel
(II) St George Jackson Mivart
(Ⅲ) J. Grinel
(IV) Isodore Geoffrey St. Hilaire
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(4) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
Answer: 2
Q.68. Match List I with List II
LIST-I (Approach to Environmental Ethics)
(A) Anthropocentrism
(B) Biocentrism
(C) Ecocentrism
(D) Social Ecology
LIST II (Meaning)
(I) Views that social hierarchies are directly connected to behaviours that lead to environmental destruction
(II) Views that environment deserves direct moral consideration and not consideration that is mainly derived from human or animal interests.
(III) Views that all environmental responsibility is derived from human interests alone.
(IV) Views that all forms of life have an inherent right to exist.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Answer: 2
Q.69. Match List I with List II
LIST-I
(Type of Region)
(A) Planning Region
(B) Formal Region
(C) Nodal Region
(D) Vernacular Region
LIST -II
(Example)
(I) Metropolitan Region
(II) NCR
(III) Middle-East
(IV) Climatic Region
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(4) A-II, B-III. C-IV. D-I
Answer: 3
Q.70. Match List I with List II
LIST-I (Regional Bloc)
(A) ASEAN
(B) EU
(C) OPEC
(D) SAARC
LIST – II (Headquarter)
(I) Kathmandu
(II) Jakarta
(III) Vienna
(IV) Brussels
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(4) D-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
Answer: 4
Q.71. Match List I with List II
LIST-I (Concept)
(A) Taboo
(B) Culture
(C) Habit
(D) Custom
LIST – II
(Characteristics)
(I) Frequent repetition of act to the extent that it becomes characteristic of the group of people performing the act.
(II) Repetitive act performed by particular individual
(III) A restriction on behaviour imposed by social tradition
(IV) The body of social norms, beliefs and material traits that together constitute a group of people of distinct tradition.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-III. B-I, C-II, D-IV
Answer: 2
Q.72. Match List I with List II
LIST – I (Thinker)
(A) Schaefer
(B) Wright
(C) Bunge
(D) Hettner
LIST – II (Contribution/Thought)
(I) Planning with the people rather than planning for them.
(II) Criticised geography as the science of distributions
(III) Geosophy
(IV) Drew attention on the formulation of laws governing spatial distribution of phenomena
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
Answer: 2
Q.73. Match List I with List II
LIST-I
(Techniques/ Analysis)
(A) Time Series Analysis
(B) Chi Square Test
(C) Cluster Analysis
(D) Lorenz Curve
LIST – II (Application)
(I) Most commonly recommended test for uniformity model
(II) Making predictions with reasonable confidence
(III) Comparing distributions on 2-dimensional surfaces
(IV) It may be either agglomerative or divisive
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Answer: 1
Q.74. Match List I with List II
LIST-I (GIS Analysis Function)
(A) Combining detailed map categories to create new, less detailed categories.
(B) Creates a zone of specified width around one or more features
(C) Permits determining the stream flows in a drainage basin
(D) Permits view shed mapping of what terrain features can be “seen” from a specified location
LIST-II (GIS Operations)
(I) Buffering
(II) Network Analysis
(III) Intervisibility
(IV) Aggregation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(2) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
Answer: 1
Q.75. Match List I with List II
LIST-I
(Coal Mining Region)
(A) Singareni
(B) Ib river Valley
(C) Karampura
(D) Kamptee
LIST – II (State)
(I) Maharashtra
(II) Jharkhand
(III) Telangana
(IV) Odisha
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Answer: 1
Q.76. Arrange the following according to their related year in chronological order (first to last)
(A) Kyoto Protocol
(B) Brudtland Commission
(C) Paris Agreement
(D) Agenda 21
Choose the correct answer from the option given below
(1) A, B, D, C
(2) B, D, A, C
(3) B, A, D, C
(4) A, D, C, B
Answer: 2
Q.77. Identity the correct sequence (descending order) of leading countries in wind power installed capacity in 2021.
(A) USA
(B) Germany
(C) China
(D) India
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) C, D, A, B
(2) A, C, B, D
(3) C, A, B, D
(4) A, C, D, B
Answer: 3
Q.78. Which of the following is correct descending sequence of world’s largest merchandise importers is 2021 as per WTO report?
(A) Japan
(B) Germany
(C) China
(D) USA
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
(1) C, A, B, D
(2) D, C, A, B
(3) C, D, B, A
(4) D, C, B, A
Answer: 4
Q.79. Arrange the following languages (in descending orders) in the world according to the percent of people speaking them.
(A) Sino-Tibetan
(B) Afro-Asiatic
(C) Indo-European
(D) Dravidian
(E) Japanese
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, C, D, B, E
(2) C, A, D, B, E
(3) A, C, B, D, E
(4) C, A, B, D, E
Answer: 4
Q.80. Arrange the following population health policies in India in chronological order (from old to recent).
(A) National Health Policy
(B) National Policy for Rare Diseases
(C) National Youth Policy
(D) National Policy for Persons with Disabilities
(E) National Mental Health Policy
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) C, D, E, A, B
(2) E, D, C, A, B
(3) D, C, E, A, B
(4) E, D, A, C, B
Answer: 1
Q.81. Arrange the following concepts of Political Geography in chronology from oldest to latest
(A) Functional Approaches in Political Geography by Hartshorne.
(B) Rimland Theory by Spykman
(C) Frontier and Boundary concept by Moodies.
(D) Heartland Thesis by Mackinder
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, C, B, D
(2) D, B, A, C
(3) D, A, C, B
(4) C, D, B, A
Answer: 2
Q.82. Arrange the following approaches in chronological order.
(A) Feminism
(B) Quantitative Revolution
(C) Behaviouralism
(D) Determinism
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, C, B, D
(2) B, C, A, D
(3) D, B, C, A
(4) C, A, D, B
Answer: 3
Q.83. Arrange the elements of electromagnetic remote sensing of earth resources in sequential order.
(A) Propagation of energy through the atmosphere
(B) Energy Source
(C) Re-transmission of energy through the atmosphere
(D) Energy interactions with earth surface features
(E) Detection, recording and transmission of data to ground stations by sensors.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, B, C, D, E
(2) B, A, D, C, E
(3) C, D, A, B, E
(4) E, D, C, B, A
Answer: 2
Q.84. Arrange the following developmental plans of India in order of their inception
(A) Desert Development Programme
(B) National Capital Region
(C) Damodar Valley Corporation
(D) Integrated Rural Development Programme
(E) Drought Prone Area Programme
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) C, E, D, A, B
(2) E, D, C, B, A
(3) D, A, B, C, E
(4) C, D, A, E, B
Answer: 1
Q.85. Arrange the following states it descending order on the basis of percentage of forested are out of the total geographical area.
(A) Uttarakhand
(B) West Bengal
(C) Odisha
(D) Kerala
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, C, B, D
(2) D, A, C, B
(3) C, A, B, D
(4) D, C, A, B
Answer: 2
Q.86. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Increasing complexity and diversity of economic activity encourages unevenness of population distribution.
Reason R: Increasing government control over economic activity emerged as a significant factor affecting population patterns.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct but R is not correct.
(4) A is not correct but R is correct.
Answer: 2
Q.87. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: The dark shadows of trees on pavement may be misclassified as water in the process of automated image classification.
Reason R: In visible-wavelength imagery, objects inside shadows will tend to appear darker and bluer than if they were fully illuminated.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.
Answer: 1
Q.88. Given below are two statements
Statement I: Sugarcane cultivations in deccan plateau region is are remunerative than northern regions of India.
Statement II: There are few number of sugar mills located in sugarcane cultivating northern regions of India.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Answer: 3
Q.89. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The movement of minerals in an ecosystem is unidirectional.
Statement II: The movement of energy in an ecosystem is cyclic.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement. II are false
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer: 2
Q.90. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: State may be defined se geographically organised area by the population and having a government in partial control of its entire area.
Statement II: A state is a human community that claims the monopoly of the legitimate use of physical force with a given territory.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement. II are false
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer: 4
Q.91. Read the page carefully and answer the questions given below:
Among horticultural products grapes, mangoes, oranges, bananas and apples great export potential. Export of grapes from Maharashtra to the Gulf countries is an encouraging feature. Most of the horticultural products face the problem of glut at the time of harvest. This needs the technology associated with the preservation of these products and their quick delivery to marketing / consumer canters. In fact, horticulture requires a better deal from the government in agricultural planning. India is the third largest producer of fruits in the world after Brazil and USA, but it processes only 0.5 percent of it as against Brazil’s 70 percent and lets Rs. 3000 crores worth of fruits and vegetables to get spoilt. This can be prevented by using genetic engineering to enhance their natural defences against fungus. Chitinase gene injected into tomatoes, potatoes, lettuces and other plants ensure their freshness till they reach their markets, saving millions of rupees spent on fumigation.
Raghavan (1992) has suggested to raise the production of fruits by 50 percent and vegetables by 100 percent to meet the full nutritional requirements of the population, besides achieving 25% exportable surplus, through the establishment of 2000 model horticulture production and processing centres covering three million hectares of irrigated land, yielding an average of Rs. 18,000 per hectare of profit for three million farmers, generating an equal number of year-round jobs and raising a total of six million families above the poverty line.
Q.91. Which one of the following statements is correct about horticultural products?
(1) Most of the agricultural products face the problems of glut at the time of crop growing
(2) Most of the horticultural products face the problem of bunt at the time of sowing.
(3) Most of the vegetable products face the problem of smut at the time of harvest
(4) Most of the horticultural products face the problem of glut at the time of harvest.
Answer: 4
Q.92. Chitinase gene is injected into tomatoes and potatoes in order to ensure
(A) Freshness
(B) Save money on preservation
(C) Price Control
(D) Weight loss check
(1) A and B Only
(2) B and C Only
(3) A and D Only
(4) B and D Only
Answer: 1
Q.93. Which of the following measures is not the necessary step required to preserve the horticultural products?
(1) Access to marketing zo
(2) Preservation systems
(3) Fast mode of transportation
(4) Big market size
Answer: 4
Q.94. India requires genetic engineering of horticultural products preservation to ensure:
(1) Artificial resistance against fungus
(2) Natural defence against glut loss
(3) Artificial defence against rust
(4) Natural defence against fungus
Answer: 4
Q.95. The 50% increase in the production of fruits and 100% of vegetables will be beneficial in form:
(A) To meet the nutritional requirement
(B) To check out migration
(C) To increase the employment opportunities
(D) To bring families above the poverty line
(1) A, C and D Only
(2) A, B and D Only
(3) B, C and D Only
(4) A, B and C Only
Answer: 1
Q.96. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions:
Every year, unsafe water sickens about 1 billion people. And low-income communities are disproportionately at risk because their homes are often closest to the most polluting industries. Waterborne pathogens, in the form of disease-causing bacteria and viruses from human and animal waste, as a major cause of illness from contaminated drinking water. Diseases spread by unsafe water include Cholera, Giardia and Typhoid. Even in wealthy nations, accidental or illegal release from sewage treatment facilities, as well as runoff from farms and urban areas, contribute harmful pathogens to waterways. Thousands of people across the United States are sickened every year by Legionnaires disease (a severe form of pneumonia contracted from water sources like cooling towers and piped water), with cases copping up from California’s Disneyland to Manhattan’s Upper East Side. Meanwhile, the plight of residents in Flint, Michigan -where cost-cutting measures and ageing water infrastructure created a lead contamination crisis-offers a stark look at how dangerous chemical and other industrial pollutants in our water can be. The problem goes far beyond Flint and involves much more than lead, as a wide mage of chemical pollutants-from heavy metals such as arsenic and mercury to pesticides and nitrate fertilizers- are getting into our water supplies. Once they are ingested, these toxins can cause a host of health issues, from cancer to hormone disruption to altered brain function. Children and pregnant women are particularly at risk. Even swimming can pose a risk. Every year, 3.5 million Americans contract health issues such as skin rashes, pinkeye, respiratory infection, and hepatitis from sewage-laden coastal waters, according to EPA estimates
Q.96. The lead contamination crisis in Flint was a consequence of:
(1) release of lead from agricultural fields
(2) high amount of human waste
(3) high amount of animal waste
(4) cost cutting measures and ageing water infrastructure
Answer: 4
Q.97. Which disease is a severe form of pneumonia contracted from water sources like cooling towers and piped water?
(1) Cholera disease
(2) Minamata disease
(3) Legionaries disease
(4) Giardia
Answer: 3
Q.98. Why low-income communities are at high risk from water pollution?
(1) Because their immunity levels are low
(2) Because their homes are often closest to the most polluting industries.
(3) Because they do not have access to medical facilities.
(4) Because their homes are farthest from city center.
Answer: 2
Q.99. Which of the following message is given through the passage?
(1) Water pollution is an issue only in under-developed nations.
(2) Water pollution occurs only in few countries.
(3) In developed countries water pollution is not caused by harmful pathogens
(4) Water pollution is a problem even in the high income countries.
Answer: 4
Q.100. Every year how many Americans contract health issues such as skin rashes, pinkeye, respiratory infection and hepatitis from sewage-laden coastal waters.
(1) 25 lakh
(2) 35 lakh
(3) 45 lakh
(4) 50 lakh
Answer: 2
File Details:
PDF Name: DECEMBER 2023 SHIFT I Geography Paper 2 NTA UGC NET
Language: English
Size: 5.35 MB
No. of Pages: 25
Download Link: Click Here to Download