So, This is the official Questions Paper and Answer Key for the paper 1 conducted on 2022, taken from official website

Note: This paper contains (50) multiple choice questions, each questions carrying two (2) marks. Attempt all of them.

(PDF) For download pdf file of question paper go to the bottom of this post.


Q.1. The term “Pedagogy” refers to

(A) methods of teaching

(B) skills required for teaching

(C) theory and practice of teaching

(D) effective classroom practice

Answer: C

Q.2. Given below are different steps of teaching process:

(i) Relating the present knowledge with the previous knowledge

(ii) Evaluation

(iii) Reteaching

(iv) Formulating objectives

(v) Presentation of materials

Choose the right option from the codes given below giving the right sequence of the steps starting from the beginning to the last.


(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)

(B) (ii), (i), (iii), (v), (iv)

(C) (iv), (i), (v), (ii), (iii)

(D) (v), (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)

Answer: C


Q.3. If the first and seventh letters of the word ‘BUREAUCRATIC’ are interchanged, also the second and eighth, and so on, then which would be the fifth letter from the left?

(A) T

(B) I

(C) C

(D) A

Answer: B


Q.4. The dynamic approach to teaching-learning process means that

(A) teaching should be open to change.

(B) teaching should be made relevant to students’ needs.

(C) teaching should emphasize student participation through learning activities.

(D) teaching should take into account students’ responses.

Answer: C


Q.5. Grading the final learning outcomes is known as

(A) Summative evaluation

(B) Formative evaluation

(C) Continuous evaluation

(D) Normative evaluation

Answer: A


Q.6. Achievement tests are commonly used for the purpose of

(A) selecting candidates for a specific job.

(B) selecting candidates for a course.

(C) identifying strengths and weaknesses of learners.

(D) assessing the amount of learning after teaching.

Answer: D


Q.7. Gurukul system of education in India flourished during

(A) Vedic and Upanishadic period

(B) Mauryan period

(C) Kushana period

(D) Gupta period

Answer: A

Q.8. Which of the following is the most appropriate criterion for evaluating the effectiveness of teaching?

(A) Learning outcomes

(B) Course completion

(C) Scope of teaching-learning content

(D) Use of teaching aids

Answer: A


Q.9. Which branch of philosophy examines issues pertaining to the nature of reality?

(A) Ontology

(B) Metaphysics

(C) Axiology

(D) Epistemology

Answer: B


Q.10. Which of the following types of research depends least on empirical facts?

(A) Ethnographic research

(B) Phenomenological research

(C) Philosophical research

(D) Experimental research

Answer: C


Q.11. An observational study that employs continuous or repeated measures to follow/observe particular individuals/groups over prolonged period of time after years or decades is

(A) Cross-sectional study

(B) Census study

(C) Longitudinal study.

(D) Descriptive study

Answer: C


Q.12. The study of body language, gestures, postures, facial expressions and body movements is known as

(A) Proxemics

(B) Vocalics

(C) Haptics

(D) Kinesics

Answer: D


Q.13. How many goals are there in the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)?

(A) 37

(B) 27

(C) 17

(D) 7

Answer: C


Q.14. What are the Primary Goals of Sustainability?

(i) To end poverty and hunger.

(ii) Better standards of education and healthcare particularly as it pertains to water quality and better sanitation.

(iii) To achieve gender equality.

(iv) Sustainable economic growth while promoting jobs and stronger economies.


(A) (i), (ii) & (iii)

(B) (i), (iii) & (iv)

(C) (i) & (iii)

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)

Answer: D


Q.15. Which of the following is the cause of extinction of plants and animals in water?

(A) Nitrogen depletion

(B) Chlorine depletion

(C) Oxygen depletion

(D) Ozone depletion

Answer: C


Q.16. What is the instrument known as for measuring earthquake?

(A) Quake meter

(B) Quake graph

(C) Seismograph

(D) Typanic graph

Answer: C


Q.17. Noise pollution is created if the noise is in excess of

(A) 80-100 dB

(B) 50-60 dB

(C) 70-75 dB

(D) 40-65 dB

Answer: A


Q.18. The name of the virtual assistant promoted by Apple Inc., which can create reminders, take notes, set alarms among many other tasks is

(A) Alexa


(C) Echo

(D) Google Home

Answer: B


Q.19. The full form of ‘NKN’ which is responsible to provide unified high speed network backbone for educational institutions in India is

(A) New Knowledge Network

(B) National Knowledge Network

(C) National Kilo-byte (KB) Network

(D) Nation-wide Knowledge Network

Answer: B


Q.20. The regulation for protecting private and organizational data recently being used across the globe is known as

(A) Global Data Protection Regulation

(B) Intellectual Property Regulation

(C) General Data Protection Regulation

(D) International Patent Law and Regulation

Answer: C


Q.21. On completion of one year of NEP 2020 in July 2021, the Government of India has announced the decision to offer Engineering degree education in five Indian languages. Identify the language in which Engineering education will be taught.

(A) Assamese

(B) Odia

(C) Maithili

(D) Bengali

Answer: D


Q.22. Which application protocol is used for distributed, collaborative and hypermedia data communication in World Wide Web?




(D) rlogin

Answer: C


Q.23. Which technology allows sharing of Internet access of one mobile node among other nodes using wireless medium?

(A) Bluetooth

(B) Zigbee

(C) Broadband

(D) Hotspot

Answer: D


Q.24. How many levels are there in Panchayati Raj system in India which was constitutionally formalized in the year 1992?

(A) Two

(B) Three

(C) Four

(D) Five

Answer: B



Q.25. Given below are four statements:

  1. In 1854 for the first time three universities were set up in India.
  2. The progress of education was slow in pre-independent India.
  3. Macaulay’s Minutes did have a crippling effect on a proper development of education in India.
  4. National College was set up in 1906 for imparting knowledge of India’s art, literature and philosophy under the Principalship of Motilal Ghosh.

Select the correct option from the codes given below:


(A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

(B) 2, 3 and 4 are correct

(C) 2 and 3 are correct

(D) 1 and 4 are correct

Answer: C

2021 WBSET PAPER 1 SOLVED PAPER in this specific post you will find last 25 set of questions (26-50), with official answer key. WBSET Paper 1 Solved paper 2021 X series & Part 1 (26-50) is here, Next 25 questions you will find next post and find that link at the bottom.


Q.26. Match the items of List-1 with the items of List-II and indicate your answer by selecting the correct code.


(River Dam Project)

(a) Shivasamudra Project

(b) Hirakud Project

(c) Mandi Project

(d) Nagarjuna Project




(i) On Krishna in AP

(ii) On Beas in HP

(iii) On Mahanadi in Odisha

(iv) On Cauvery in Karnataka


            (a)        (b)       (c)        (d)

(A)       i           ii          iii         iv

(B)       iv         iii         ii          i

(C)       ii          iii         i           iv

(D)       iv         ii          iii         i

Answer: B

Q.27. Which of the following abbreviations used in footnotes and endnotes means ‘in the same place’?

(A) et.al

(B) loc.cit.

(C) ibid.

(D) op.cit.

Answer: C


Q.28. The term “research methodology” refers to

(A) the methods used in data collection and analysis.

(B) the rules for writing a research report or paper.

(C) the specific methods of study and analysis.

(D) the theoretical paradigms for data collection, analysis and interpretation.

Answer: D


Q.29. Sultan, Ahmed and Kashim start a business each investing Rs. 20,000.00. After 5 months Sultan withdraws Rs. 5,000.00, Ahmed withdraws Rs. 4,000.00 and Kashim invests Rs. 6,000.00 more. At the end of the year, a total profit of Rs. 69,900.00 was recorded. Find the share of each.

(A) Rs. 20,500.00, Rs. 21,200.00, Rs. 28,200.00

(B) Rs. 21,200.00, Rs. 25,000.00, Rs. 23,700.00

(C) Rs. 20,500.00, Rs. 20,400.00, Rs. 29,000.00

(D) Rs. 21,600.00, Rs. 26,200.00, Rs. 22,100.00

Answer: A


Q.30. Four students W, X, Y, Z appeared in four papers I, II, III and IV in a test. Their scores out of 100 are given below:

Students                     Papers

(I)        (II)       (III)     (IV)

W                    60        81        45        55

X                     59        43        51        55

Y                     74        60        71        65

Z                      72        76        58        68

Which candidate has secured between 60-65 marks in average?

(A) X

(B) Y

(C) W

(D) Z

Answer: C


Q.31. A given mixture contains milk and water in the ratio 4: 3. If 5 litres of water is added to the mixture, the ratio becomes 4: 5. Find the quantity of milk in the given mixture.

(A) 8 litres

(B) 9 litres

(C) 10 litres

(D) 11 litres

Answer: C


Q.32. A sampling frame is

(A) a summary of the various stages involved in designing a survey.

(B) an outline view of all the main clusters of units in a sample.

(C) a list of all units in the population from which a sample will be selected.

(D) a wooden frame used to display tables of random numbers.

Answer: C


Q.33. The standard error is a statistical measure of

(A) the normal distribution of scores around the sample mean.

(B) the extent to which a sample mean is likely to differ from the population mean.

(C) the clustering of scores at each end of a survey scale.

(D) the degree to which a sample has been accurately stratified.

Answer: B


Directions: Study the following table and answer Question Nos. 34 to 37.

Expenditures of a company (in lakhs of rupees) per annum over the given years:



Q.34. What is the average amount of interest per year which the company has to pay during the period?

(A) Rs. 32.43 lakh

(B) Rs. 33.72 lakh

(C) Rs. 34.18 lakh

(D) Rs. 36.66 lakh

Answer: D

Q.35. The total amount of bonus paid by the company during the period is approximately what per cent of the total amount of salary paid during the period?

(A) 0.1%

(B) 0.5%

(C) 1.0%

(D) 1.25%

Answer: C


Q.36. The total expenditure on all the items in 2014 was approximately what percent of the total expenditure in 2018?

(A) 62%

(B) 66%

(C) 69%

(D) 71%

Answer: C


Q.37. The ratio between the total expenditure on taxes for all the years and the total expenditure on fuel and transport for all the years respectively is approximately

(A) 4:7

(B) 10:13

(C) 15:18

(D) 5:8

Answer: B

Directions: Question Nos. 38 – 40

In the following diagram ‘rectangle’ represents ‘men’, ‘triangle’ represents educated’, ‘circle’ represents urban’ and ‘square’ represents ‘government employees’.



Q.38. Which one of the following represents the educated men but not urban?

(A) 9

(B) 5

(C) 4

(D) 11

Answer: D


Q.39. Which one of the following represents urban men government employees?

(A) 12

(B) 6

(C) 13

(D) 4

Answer: B

Q.40. What is represented by the number ‘4’?

(A) Educated government employees

(B) Urban educated men

(C) Urban men

(D) Urban educated men government employees

Answer: B

Q.41. Choose the missing word in place of (?) on the basis of the relationship.






Answer: A


Q.42. What is the next term in the following series?

4, 20, 35, 49, 62, 74, ?

(A) 79

(B) 81

(C) 85

(D) 91

Answer: C


Q.43. What is the next term in the following series?

2, 1, 1/2, 1/4, 1/8, ?

(A) 1/3

(B) 3/48

(C) 2/24

(D) 1/4

Answer: B


Q.44. Identify the IP address from the following:

(A) 800-315-600-3


(C) [email protected]

(D) 202-50@20-148

Answer: B


Q.45. Virtual memory means

(A) an extremely large main memory.

(B) an extremely large secondary memory.

(C) an illusion of extremely large main memory.

(D) a type of memory used in super computers.

Answer: C


Read the following passage and answer Question Nos. 46 to 50:

Sport is expected to operate at a higher moral plane where the effort is honest and transparency remains an abiding principle. It is a utopian ideal leaning on pure performance, copious sweat and relentless training. But in a practical world greased with greed, besides match-fixing, there is another terrible offence: ingestion of performance-enhancing drugs. Athletes like Canada’s Ben Johnson were labeled as drug-cheats and rightly denied their Olympic medals. The World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA). since its inception in 1999, has imposed stringent measures so that sport stays drug-free. In India, WADA’s rules have been enforced by the Government-run National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA) and almost all sports federations had fallen in line except one behemoth – the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI). But that aberration was erased as the BCCI accepted NADA’s supervision following a meeting between its CEO a Rahul Johri, General Manager Saba Karim and Sports Ministry officials led by Sports Secretary Radhey Shyam Julaniya. Indian cricket’s governing body finally agreed to subject its players to NADA’s testing routines. Before its turn-around, the BCCI had resisted NADA’s intervention. The main objection pertained to the “whereabouts” clause, which made it mandatory for a player to reveal where he would be on a daily basis. The need for privacy was offered as an excuse.

Earlier, the BCCI had its in-house dope-tests but it only lent credence to the allegations about conflict of interest. The issue came to a boil when Prithvi Shaw was given a back-dated eight-month suspension after he tested positive for a banned drug. Terbutaline. The 19-year-old batsman, who was checked in February, claimed that the substance was present in an over-the-counter cough syrup. Shaw’s excuse and the BCCI’s quick acceptance of his self-medication, bred scepticism. It is either naivety or a classic cover-up from an Indian cricketer, who had been advised about the chemicals that have to be avoided even for therapeutic purposes. The silver-lining is that the episode hastened the BCCI’s move into the NADA’s ambit and also cleared the decks for the Indian women’s cricket team to compete in the 2022 Commonwealth Games at Birmingham. With the BCCI belatedly allowing NADA to monitor its domestic cricketers, by extension the International Cricket Council too has finally come under the WADA’s unerring gaze. In these hyper-kinetic times, it is a fallacy to stress that cricket is just a reflection of skill and that drug enhanced muscular efficiency cannot influence match results. Sport has to be a level-playing field and it is finally one with the willow-game subjecting itself to universal drug-testing rules.

Q.46. Which of the following options is closest in meaning to the word ‘behemoth’ as used in the passage?

(A) A large and cumbersome body

(B) A government agency

(C) A powerful organization

(D) A regulatory body for sports

Answer: C


Q.47. Which of the following statements is not implied in the passage?

(A) Sports persons need to be disciplined.

(B) Sports persons may try all means to win.

(C) Sports persons do not follow rules.

(D) Sports persons should be honest and obey rules.

Answer: C


Q.48. According to the author, The Board of Control for Cricket in India

(A) was unwilling to test its players for drugs.

(B) was reluctant to accept any of the conditions of NADA.

(C) was forced by the Sports Ministry to accept NADA’s conditions.

(D) was being over-protective of its players.

Answer: B


Q.49. Which of the following best reflects the author’s view of human conduct?

(A) Which is ideal regarding human conduct may not always be practical.

(B) People are usually honest and idealistic.

(C) People are irresponsible and need to be disciplined.

(D) Human behaviour is unpredictable.

Answer: A


Q.50. Which of the following phrases used in the passage is not a metaphor?

(A) Silver-lining

(B) Match-fixing

(C) Willow-game

(D) Greased with greed

Answer: B




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