DEC 2013 PAPER 3 GEOGRAPHY UGC NET SOLVED PAPER
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So, This is the official Questions Paper and Answer Key for the paper 2 geography conducted on DEC 2013, taken from www.cbsenet.nic.in
Note: This paper contains fifty (75) multiple choice questions, each questions carrying two (2) marks. Attempt all of them.
(PDF) For download pdf file of question paper go to the bottom of this post.
2013 December UGC NET Solved Question Paper in Geography, Paper III
Q.1. The concept of geosynclines was given by
(1) James Hall and Dana
(2) Hang
(3) Holmes
(4) Steers
Answer: (1)
Q.2. The Base Level concept was postulated by
(1) James Hutton
(2) J.W. Powell
(3) W.M. Davis
(4) Walther Penck
Answer: (2)
Q.3. Which of the following is formed as a result of tectonic forces?
(1) Hanging valley
(2) V-shaped valley
(3) Rift valley
(4) Blind valley
Answer: (3)
Q.4. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given: (UGC NET- DEC 2013)
List – I
(a) A plain largely composed of recent alluvium
(b) a deep sea plain
(c) a plain formed by wind action
(d) a level surface lightly covered with thin layer of alluvium
List – II
(i) Pedi plain
(ii) Loess plain
(iii) Flood plain
(v) Abyssal plain
Codes:
| a | b | c | d | |
| (1) | iv | iii | ii | i |
| (2) | iii | iv | i | ii |
| (3) | iv | iii | i | ii |
| (4) | iii | iv | ii | i |
Answer: (4)
Q.5. The present is the key to the past this statement was made by
(1) W.M. Davis
(2) James Hutton
(3) Van Ritchthofen
(4) A. Penck
Answer: (2)
Q.6. Which of the following was a part of Lauratia?
(1) Anatolian Plate
(2) Chinese Plate
(3) Iranian Plate
(4) Agean Plate
Answer: (2)
Q.7. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer using the given codes: (UGC NET- DEC 2013)
List – I
(a) Normal fault
(b) Reverse fault
(c) Lateral fault
(d) Stege fault
List – II
(i) Displacement of both the rock blocks in opposite directions
(ii) Movement of both the rock blocks towards each other
(iii) Displacement of rock block horizontally along fault plane
(iv) When the slopes of a series of faults are in same direction
Codes:
| a | b | c | d | |
| (1) | i | ii | iii | iv |
| (2) | iv | iii | ii | i |
| (3) | iii | i | ii | iv |
| (4) | ii | iii | i | iv |
Answer: (1)
Q.8. When does an escarpment appear?
(1) When a land block moves horizontally.
(2) When a land block moves vertically.
(3) When a land block moves due to water logging.
(4) When a land block moves due to human intervention.
Answer: (2)
Q.9. Identify fluvio-glacial deposits from the following:
(1) Outwash plain
(2) Flood plain
(3) Penne plain
(4) Pan plain
Answer: (1)
Q.10. Migration from developed to less developed region is called as
(1) Emigration
(2) Immigration
(3) Perverse migration
(4) Reverse migration
Answer: (3)
Q.11. Space is socially or culturally constructed” is the view under
(1) Logical positivism
(2) Behaviouralism
(3) Post modernism
(4) Structuralism
Answer: (3)
Q.12. A counter clock-wise atmospheric circulation in the northern hemisphere is known as
(1) Pressure gradient
(2) Cyclone
(3) Anti-cyclone
(4) Tornado
Answer: (2)
Q.13. The author of the book ‘The Unstable Earth’ is
(1) Paschel
(2) Gilberk G.K.
(3) Mallot C.A.
(4) J.A. Steers
Answer: (4)
Q.14. Which of the following earthquake waves are most destructive?
(1) S-waves
(2) P-waves
(3) R-waves
(4) L-waves
Answer: (1)
Q.15. Mediterranean climate is characterized by
(1) Dry summer and humid winter
(2) Humid summer and Dry winter
(3) Dry summer and Dry winter
(4) Humid summer with no winter
Answer: (1)
Q.16. Insolation reaches the earth surface in the form of
(1) Short waves
(2) Long waves
(3) Microwaves
(4) Lorenz curve
Answer: (1)
Q.17. The range of visible wave length on electromagnetic spectrum is
(1) 0.4 to 0.7 micrometres
(2) 0.7 to 15.0 micrometres
(3) 0.3 to 0.9 micrometres
(4) 0.3 to 15.0 micrometres
Answer: (1)
Q.18. As per the Koppen’s scheme the Bhwh type of climate is found in
(1) Jammu & Kashmir
(2) Rajasthan
(3) Gujarat
(4) Odisha
Answer: (2)
Q.19. Cold dry wind experienced particularly in winter along the eastern coast of Atlantic Ocean and in Northern Italy is called
(1) Cyclone
(2) Boras
(3) Tornado
(4) Hurricane
Answer: (2)
Q.20. The atmosphere gets heated by which one of the following?
(1) Direct rays of the sun
(2) Volcanic activity
(3) Burning of organic material
(4) Radiation from the earth
Answer: (2)
Q.21. A tropical cyclone was located 500 kms. South-West of Visakhapatnam. The cyclone first moved 250 kms in North-West direction and then suddenly changed the direction to the North-East. Which of the following ports would raise the highest danger signal?
(1) Chennai
(2) Haldia
(3) Visakhapatanam
(4) Tuticorin
Answer: (3)
Q.22. Which one of the following regions does not receive much rainfall during the South-West monsoon season?
(1) Tamil Nadu Coast
(2) Maharashtra
(3) Chota Nagpur Plateau
(4) Eastern Himalayas
Answer: (1)
Q.23. In which type of climate equiplanation process i.e., reduction of relief to a plain takes place?
(1) Arid climate
(2) Cold climate
(3) Tropical climate
(4) Temperate climate
Answer: (2)
Q.24. Winter rainfall in North-Western part of India is mainly due to
(1) Western disturbance
(2) North-East Monsoon
(3) North-West Monsoon
(4) Depression in the Bay of Bengal
Answer: (1)
Q.25. Which phenomena shown in the sketch given below is correct?
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(1) Normal lapse rate
(2) Upper surface inversion
(3) Lower surface inversion
(4) Environmental lapse rate
Answer: (2)
Q.26. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The eastern coast of India is affected by tropical cyclones more than the western coast.
Reason (R): Tropical cyclone originates only in the Bay of Bengal.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) does not explain (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is correct.
Answer: (3)
Q.27. Match List I and List II and select the correct answer using the codes given: (UGC NET DEC 2013)
List – I (Names of tropical cyclones)
(a) Hurricanes
(b) Typhoons
(c) Willy-Willy
(d) Taifu
List – II (Regions)
(i) Australia
(ii) Japan
(iii) U.S.A.
(iv) China
Codes:
| a | b | c | d | |
| (1) | iii | iv | i | ii |
| (2) | i | ii | iii | iv |
| (3) | iv | iii | ii | i |
| (4) | ii | i | iii | iv |
Answer: (1)
Q.28. The temperature that provides favourable ecological conditions for living coral reefs is
(1) Less than 10 °C
(2) 10 °C to 15 °C
(3) 15 °C to 20 °C
(4) More than 20 °C
Answer: (4)
Q.29. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given: (UGC NET DEC 2013)
List – I
(a) Coral reef
(b) Shoal
(c) Abyssal plain
(d) Continental slope
List – II
(i) Organic Ocean Deposit
(ii) Deep flat surface
(iii) Steep descent from the shelf bed
(iv) Detached elevation with shallow depth
Codes:
| a | b | c | d | |
| (1) | ii | iii | i | iv |
| (2) | iv | i | iii | ii |
| (3) | iii | ii | iv | i |
| (4) | i | v | ii | iii |
Answer: (4)
Q.30. Which among the following has postulated the Subsidence Theory related to coral reef?
(1) Dally
(2) Agassiz
(3) Darwin
(4) Davis
Answer: (3)
Q.31. If a tide occurs at a place at 6 p.m. when will be the next tide occurs?
(1) 00.13 a.m. of the next day
(2) 06.26 a.m. of the next day
(3) 12.39 p.m. of the next day
(4) 06.52 p.m. of the next day
Answer: (2)
Q.32. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given: (UGC NET DEC 2013)
List – I
(a) Tide
(b) Tsunami
(c) Gulf stream
(d) Labrador current
List – II
(i) A warm comparatively fast moving ocean current
(ii) A cold ocean current
(iii) The periodic rise and fall of water
(iv) Rise of sea water in wave form due to seismic activity
Codes:
| a | b | c | d | |
| (1) | ii | i | iii | iv |
| (2) | i | ii | iii | iv |
| (3) | iii | iv | i | ii |
| (4) | iv | iii | ii | i |
Answer: (3)
Q.33. Which one of the following ecosystem services is not a part of Millennium Ecosystem Assessment (MA) report?
(1) Provisioning
(2) Promoting
(3) Supportive
(4) Regulating
Answer: (2)
Q.34. Which one of the following places in India the first bird-sanctuary was set up?
(1) Vedanthangal
(2) Kundremukha
(3) Bannarghata
(4) Keoladeo
Answer: (1)
Q.35. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Physical factors provide only a partial and deterministic explanation of geographical distribution of population.
Reason (R): Man is by no means passive in his choice of areas for settlement and everywhere demonstrates an ability to exercise some control over his environment.
Codes:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
Answer: (2)
Q.36. Which one of the following indicates the principle of transport in Central Place Theory?
(1) K3
(2) K4
(3) K7
(4) K9
Answer: (2)
Q.37. Assertion (A): Post-industrial city is largely characterised by horizontal expansion.
Reason (R): Land prices are high in the central city.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) does not explain (A).
(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(4) (R) is correct, but (A) is false.
Answer: (1)
Q.38. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below: (UGC NET DEC 2013)
List – I
(a) Cantonment
(b) Transport
(c) Mining
(d) I.T.
List – II
(i) Kochi
(ii) Bangalore
(iii) Mau
(iv) Ankleshwar
Codes:
| a | b | c | d | |
| (1) | i | iii | ii | iv |
| (2) | iii | ii | iv | i |
| (3) | iii | i | iv | ii |
| (4) | iii | i | ii | iv |
Answer: (3)
Q.39. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and find the correct answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Global urban population is not uniformly distributed by location and nearly two-thirds is relatively concentrated within low elevation coastal areas.
Reason (R): Soil fertility in the coastal areas caused concentration of rural settlements.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) does not explain (A).
(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (A) is true.
Answer: (2)
Q.40. Which one of the following stages of demographic transition model predicts a-high birth but a-low death rate?
(1) First stage
(2) Second stage
(3) Third stage
(4) Late-second stage
Answer: (2)
Q.41. Match the following: (UGC NET DEC 2013)
List – I (State)
(a) Uttarakhand
(b) Chhattisgarh
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Gujarat
List – II (Rate of Literacy (%) at 2011 census)
(i) 69.7
(ii) 70.0
(iii) 60.2
(iv) 73.4
Codes:
| a | b | c | d | |
| (1) | i | ii | iii | iv |
| (2) | ii | iii | iv | i |
| (3) | iii | iv | i | ii |
| (4) | iv | iii | ii | i |
Answer: (2)
Q.42. Which one of the following is not an assumption or principle of the concentric zone model of urban land case?
(1) Cultural and social heterogeneity of the population
(2) Transport is equally easy, rapid and cheap in every direction within the city.
(3) None of districts is attractive due to differences in terrain.
(4) There is a concentration of heavy industry.
Answer: (3)
Q.43. Who, amongst the following, defined Geography as a chorological science?
(1) Ptolemy
(2) Richthofen
(3) Hettner
(4) P.E. James
Answer: (3)
Q.44. Who, amongst the following, has propounded the concept of Time Space Geography?
(1) Hagerstrand
(2) Haggett
(3) Johnston
(4) Harvey
Answer: (1)
Q.45. Match the following from the codes: (UGC NET DEC 2013)
List I (Major Proponent)
(a) Gibson
(b) Guelke
(c) Peet
(d) Wright and Kirk
List II (Philosophy of Geography)
(i) Idealism
(ii) Realism
(iii) Behaviouralism
(iv) Radicalism
Codes:
| a | b | c | d | |
| (1) | i | ii | iii | iv |
| (2) | i | ii | iv | iii |
| (3) | ii | i | iv | iii |
| (4) | ii | i | iii | iv |
Answer: (3)
Q.46. Which one of the following ports has been developed on a lagoon?
(1) Chennai
(2) Mumbai
(3) Kochi
(4) Visakhapatnam
Answer: (3)
Q.47. Truck farming is associated with
(1) Vegetables
(2) Milk
(3) Cereals
(4) Poultry
Answer: (1)
Q.48. The essential feature of shifting cultivation is
(1) Rotation of crops
(2) Rotation of fields
(3) Single cropping
(4) Use of plenty of fertilizers
Answer: (2)
Q.49. What is the common practice involved in shifting cultivation?
(1) Use of sophisticated machinery
(2) Large scale use of fertilizers
(3) Utilization of poor soils through ploughing / fallowing
(4) Maximum use of animal power
Answer: (4)
Q.50. Under the scope of town planning in India is covered: (UGC NET DEC 2013)
(1) Urban renewal
(2) Planning of urban amenities and facilities
(3) Building of new towns
(4) Building of metropolitan cities
Codes:
(1) 1 and 3 are correct.
(2) Only 1 is correct.
(3) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
(4) 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
Answer:( 3)
Q.51. Match the List I with List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below: (UGC NET- DEC 2013)
| List – I | List – II |
| (a) Rivers | (i) Sand stone |
| (b) Settlements | (ii) Gale |
| (c) Winds | (iii) Levees |
| (d) Rocks | (iv) Satellite |
Codes:
| a | b | c | d | |
| (1) | iii | iv | ii | i |
| (2) | iv | iii | i | ii |
| (3) | ii | i | iv | iii |
| (4) | i | ii | iii | iv |
Answer: (1)
Q.52. Match the List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below: (UGC NET DEC 2013)
List – I
(a) Falkland current
(b) Norwegian current
(c) Florida current
(d) Okholsk current
List – II
(i) Warm current
(ii) Cold current
(iii) Atlantic Ocean
(iv) Kamchetka Peninsula
Codes:
| a | b | c | d | |
| (1) | ii | iii | i | iv |
| (2) | i | ii | iv | iii |
| (3) | iii | i | ii | iv |
| (4) | iv | iii | i | ii |
Answer: (1)
Q.53. Who has, amongst the followinggeographers, defined Geography of Public Finance ‘who gets what, where, and at what cost’?
(1) R.J. Chorley
(2) David Harvey
(3) P. Claval
(4) R.J. Bennett
Answer: (4)
Q.54. Match the List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below: (UGC NET DEC 2013)
List – I (Natural Parks & Wild Life Sanctuaries)
(a) Nandankanan
(b) Kaziranga
(c) Bandhavgarh
(d) Melghat
List – II (States)
(i) Maharashtra
(ii) Madhya Pradesh
(iii) Odisha
(iv) Assam
Codes:
| a | b | c | d | |
| (1) | i | ii | iii | iv |
| (2) | ii | iii | iv | i |
| (3) | iii | iv | ii | i |
| (4) | iv | i | iii | ii |
Answer: (3)
Q.55. Which of the following is not a supervised image classification technique?
(1) Parallelopiped classifier
(2) Minimum distance to mean classifier
(3) Neural network analysis
(4) Gaussian maximum likelihood classifier
Answer: (3)
Q.56. A meteor is
(1) Comet without a tail
(2) Detached piece of an asteroid
(3) Tiny star
(4) Piece of matter which has entered the earth’s atmosphere from outer space
Answer: (4)
Q.57. Which one of the following tribes does not correctly matched?
(1) Batwa and Congo Basin
(2) Ruwala and Central Iran
(3) Inuit and Canada
(4) Yuklagir and Siberia
Answer: (2)
Q.58. Which one of the following regions witnessed the growth of mighty civilizations of Roman and Greek?
(1) Temperate region
(2) Savanna region
(3) Mediterranean region
(4) Tundra region
Answer: (3)
Q.59. Which of the following is not considered a geographic pattern?
(1) Centralized
(2) Distributive
(3) Linear
(4) Random
Answer: (2)
Q.60. Machu Picchu of Inca civilization is located in
(1) Argentina
(2) Brazil
(3) Columbia
(4) Peru
Answer: (4)
Q.61. In 1919, Mackinder renamed his ‘Pivot Area’ as ‘Heartland’ in famous book
(1) Foreign Affairs
(2) The Round World and the Winning of the Peace
(3) The Democratic Ideals and Reality
(4) World War and Geography
Answer: (3)
Q.62. The objectives behind building the planned city of Chandigarh were (UGC NET DEC 2013)
(1) To build a city of modern India’s dreams.
(2) To settle down refugees coming to India after the partition.
(3) To develop an attractive tourist centre in Northwestern India.
(4) To provide capital city to Truncated Punjab.
Codes:
(1) 2 and 4 are correct.
(2) 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
(3) 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
(4) only 4 is correct.
Answer: (3)
Q.63. Which of the following sentences is not a correct one?
(1) Utilitarian planning is a functional planning and it strives to achieve a supreme single specific goal.
(2) Sectoral planning is a coordinated planning with planning in various sectors in an integrated manner.
(3) Comprehensive planning has also been used with implicit connotation of integrated planning of all elements of a single activity.
(4) Town planning is an expression of spatial planning of an urban system.
Answer: (2)
Q.64. Several planned cities have been developed in India after Independence. Which one of the following is not a post-independence planned city?
(1) Gandhinagar
(2) Chandigarh
(3) Jaipur
(4) Bhubaneshwar
Answer: (3)
Q.65. Which one of the following is not a measure of Central tendency?
(1) Arithmetic mean
(2) Mean deviation
(3) Median
(4) Mode
Answer: (1)
Q.66. Which one of the following Indian Remote Sensing Satellites, IRS-P4 is also known as
(1) Resourcesat
(2) Edusat
(3) Remotesat
(4) Oceansat
Answer: (4)
Q.67. Which one of the following States has recorded the lowest human development index?
(1) Bihar
(2) Himachal Pradesh
(3) Punjab
(4) Haryana
Answer: (1)
Q.68. Which one of the following group of States, which includes catchment area of Cauvery river basin, is correct?
(1) Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Pondicherry and Andhra Pradesh
(2) Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh and Pondicherry
(3) Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra and Kerala
(4) Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka and Pondicherry
Answer: (4)
Q.69. Which one of the following is a centrographic measure?
(1) Geometric mean
(2) Arithmetic mean
(3) Mean centre
(4) Standard deviation
Answer: (3)
Q.70. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below: (UGC NET- DEC 2013)
| List I | List II |
| (a) Block Mountains | (i) Aravallies |
| (b) Volcanic Mountains | (ii) Pennives |
| (c) Relict Mountains | (iii) Vindhyachal |
| (d) Fold Mountains | (iv) Mount Popa |
Codes:
| a | b | c | d | |
| (1) | i | ii | iii | iv |
| (2) | ii | i | iv | iii |
| (3) | iv | iii | ii | i |
| (4) | iii | iv | i | ii |
Answer: (4)
Q.71. Which one of the following map scales is a large scale?
(1) 1: 250,000
(2) 1: 25,000
(3) 1: 500,000
(4) 1: 50,000
Answer: (2)
Q.72. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The Raster format data structure provides a greater computational efficiency.
Reason (R): The Raster format data is simple.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) does not explain (A).
(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
Answer: (3)
Q.73. An original map has the RF–1/50,000 and R.F. of the new map will be 1/250,000. What is the correct proportion of enlargement/reduction as given below?
(1) Reduction 1/5
(2) Enlargement (5 times)
(3) Reduction 1/10
(4) Enlargement (10 times)
Answer: (1)
Q.74. Which one of the following values of correlation coefficient (r) is not correctly matched degree of relationship?
(1) + 0.99 High
(2) + 0.50 Moderate
(3) – 0.01 Very low
(4) – 0.99 Nil
Answer: (4)
Q.75. In which of the following year, IRS-1A was launched
(1) 1982
(2) 1987
(3) 1988
(4) 1990
Answer: (3)