JULY 2018 GEOGRAPHY PAPER 2 ANSWERS KEY (1-100)
So, This is the official Questions Paper and Answer Key for the paper 2 geography conducted on July 2018, taken from
Note: This paper contains 100 multiple choice questions, each questions carrying two (2) marks. Attempt all of them.
(PDF) For download pdf file of question paper go to the bottom of this post.
Q.1. The concept of geosyncline was propounded by:
(1) Holmes
(2) James Hutton
(3) Hall and Dana
(4) J.W. Powell
Answer- 3
Q.2. The term ‘Cosmography’ was coined and divided into ‘Uranography’ and Geography by:
(1) Ritter
(2) Peschal
(3) Humboldt
(4) Verinious
Answer- 3
Q.3. Ice Cryatal Theory related to precipitation was postulated by:
(1) Muir
(2) Darwin
(3) Bergeron
(4) Boven
Answer- 3
Q.4. The subsidence theory related to the coral reef was propounded by:
(1) Davis
(2) Darwin
(3) Dally
(4) Dana
Answer- 2
Q.5. Gutenberg discontinuity is found between the:
(1) Crust and mantle
(2) Mantle and core
(3) Upper Core and Lower Core
(4) Upper Mantle and Lower Mantle
Answer- 2
Q.6. The concept of panplan was propagated by:
(1) C.A. Cotton
(2) Von Ricthofen
(3) Crickmay
(4) Alfred Von Wegener
Answer- 3
Q.7. The direction of a horizontal line on an inclined rock strata is termed as:
(1) Strike
(2) Dip
(3) Anticline
(4) Free face
Answer- 1
Q.8. Which of the following scholars is the proponent of the turbidity current theory on origin of submarine canyons?
(1) Salin
(2) Gregory
(3) Daly
(4) Harry Hen
Answer- 3
Q.9. Peternoster Lakes are:
(1) Lakes formed on glacial stair ways
(2) Lakes having volcanic origin
(3) Lakes formed by a shallow stretch of water caused by sea erosion
(4) Cresent shaped lakes formed due to cut-off of a river meander
Answer-1
Q.10. “The present is the key to the past.” This phase is related to the concept of:
(1) Isostasy
(2) Diastrophism
(3) Plate tectonics
(4) Uniformatarianism
Answer- 4
Q.11. Which one of the following instrument is used for determination of degree of stability or instability of an air parcel?
(1) Viscometer
(2) Radiosondes
(3) SONAR
(4) pH meter
Answer- 2
Q.12. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below:
Assertion (A): Antartica is constantly snow-covered but receives less than 8cm annual precipitatiuon.
Reason (R): Constant speedy wind blow in Antarctica.
Code:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer- 2
Q.13. Which one of the following types of plate boundaries and motions are exemplified by the San Andreas Faultr of California?
(1) Transform boundary with sinistral motion
(2) Transform boundary with dextral motion
(3) Divergent boundary with sinistral motion
(4) Convergent boundary with dextral motion
Answer- 2
Q.14. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List-I (Thornthwait’s Temperature Provinces)
(a) Mesothermal
(b) Microthermal
(c) Taiga
(d) Tundra
List-II (T/E Index Values)
(i) 16-31
(ii) 1-15
(iii) 64-127
(iv) 32-63
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) iv iii ii i
(2) i ii iii iv
(3) iii iv i ii
(4) ii i iv ii
Answer- 3
Q.15. Which one of the following latitudes s known as the ‘Calms of Cancer’?
(1) 66 ½0 S
(2) 66 ½0 N
(3) 25o N
(4) 250 S
Answer- 3
Q.16. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List-I (Instrument)
(a) Sling psychrometer
(b) Pedometer
(c) Spectrometer
(d) Pycnometer
List-II (Measured entity)
(i) Soil density
(ii) Radiant energy
(iii) Relative Humidity
(iv) Distance
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) iii iv i ii
(2) iii iv ii i
(3) iv iii ii i
(4) i ii iv iii
Answer- 2
Q.17. The American climotologist C.W.Thornthwaite revised the scheme of the classification of world climates in which one of the following years?
(1) 1931
(2) 1934
(3) 1941
(4) 1948
Answer- 4
Q.18. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List-I (Force)
(a) Coriolis
(b) Tidal
(c) Friction
(d) Resisting
List-II (Source)
(i) Earth’s gravity
(ii) Topographic differences
(iii) Static state
(iv) Earth’s rotation
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) iv ii iii i
(2) iv iii ii i
(3) iv i iii ii
(4) iv i ii iii
Answer- 4
Q.19. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List-I (Process)
(a) Decomposition
(b) Transpiration
(c) Respiration
(d) Photosynthesis
List-II (Outcome)
(i) CO2
(ii) O2
(iii) CH4
(iv) Water Vapour
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) i iv ii iii
(2) iv iii i ii
(3) iii iv i ii
(4) iii iv ii i
Answer- 3
Q.20. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below:
Assertion (A): The monsoon of southern and eastern Asia driven by the location and size of the Asian landmass and its proxmity to the Indian Ocean.
Reason (R): The wind and pressure patterns in the upper air circulation are associated with generation of monsoonal flows.
Code:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer- 2
Q.21. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List-I (Ocean Trench)
(a) Tonga
(b) Kuril Kamchatka
(c) Philippine
(d) Romanche
List-II (Depth in meters)
(i) 7760
(ii) 10540
(iii) 10880
(iv) 10500
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) iii iv ii i
(3) iv iii i ii
(4) ii i iv iii
Answer- 4
Q.22. Which one of the followings is the main source for a vast reservoir of relatively inert nitrogen in homosphere?
(1) Volcanc activities
(2) Fossil fuel burning
(3) Acid rain
(4) Global warming
Answer- 1
Q.23. In which of the following directions the Nazca Plate is moving?
(1)East
(2) West
(3) South
(4) North
Answer- 1
Q.24. Which one of the following sequences is the correct one in a littoral zone from land to sea?
(1) Backshore, Foreshore, Nearshore, Offshore
(2) Foreshore, Backshore, Nearshore, Offshore
(3) Offshore, Nearshore, Foreshore, Backshore
(4) Nearshore, Offshore, Backshore, Foreshore
Answer- 1
Q.25. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below:
Assertion (A): In low latitudes, sea water in the deep cold zone does not freeze.
Reason (R): The deep sea water does not remain under intense pressure because of its high salinity.
Code:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer- 3
Q.26. Which one of the followings is the correct average range of worldwide variations is sea water salinity?
(1) 34% to 37%
(2) 27% to 29%
(3) 37% to 39%
(4) 21% to 26%
Answer- 1
Q.27. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below:
Assertion (A): Energy flow shifts from production to respiration in the entrophic stage, with oxygen demand exceeding oxygen availability.
Reason (R): Stratospheric ozone layer depletion causes skin diseases.
Code:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer- 2
Q.28. Which one of the following groups of natural elements in living matters make up more than 99% of Earth’s biomass?
(1) H, O, C
(2) N, CA, K
(3) H, CA, N
(4) S, H, Na
Answer- 1
Q.29. Which one of the following phenomena plays a vital role in the dispersion of majestic dinosaurs?
(1) Volcanic eruption
(2) Zonal faulting
(3) Global cooling
(4) Continental drift
Answer- 4
Q.30. The U.N. Conference on Environment and Development held in Rio de Janeiro during June 3- 14, 1992 was chaired by:
(1) Geogre W. Bush
(2) Maurine F.Strong
(3) Tony Blair
(4) Rachel Carson
Answer- 2
Q.31. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List-I (Emitter)
(a) Decaying plants
(b) Volcanoes
(c) Oceans
(d) Forest fires
List-II (Emitted Products)
(i) Carbon monoxide
(ii) Salt spray
(iii) Hydrogen sulphide
(iv) Sulfur oxides
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) iii iv i ii
(2) iii iv ii i
(3) iii ii iv i
(4) ii iii i iv
Answer- 2
Q.32. Who among the following scholars laid down the foundation of dichotomy of general versus special geography?
(1) Immanuel Kant
(2) Sebastian Munster
(3) Bernhard Varenius
(4) Peter Apian
Answer- 3
Q.33. Which of the following pairs does not match?
Authors Book
(1) Al – Masudi Router and Realms
(2) Al – Balaki Kitabul Ashkal
(3) Al – Biruni Kitab – al- Hind
(4) Ibn – Khaldun Muqaddimah
Answer- 1
Q.34. The Hydraulic Slope Theory was propunded by:
(1) R.E. Horton
(2) Darwin
(3) Penck
(4) Mallot
Answer- 1
Q.35. Who among the following scholars emphasized on the Behavioural Approach in Geography?
(1) Johnston
(2) Kirk
(3) Burton
(4) Gregory
Answer- 2
Q.36. Which one of the following in the correct sequences of German geographers contributing to the developemnt of geographical thought?
(1) Ratzel – Troll – Hettner – Peschel
(2) Peschel – Hettner – Ratzel – Troll
(3) Peschel – Ratzel – Hettner – Troll
(4) Troll– Hettner – Peschel – Ratzel
Answer- 3
Q.37. ‘The same environment carries different meanings to people with different ways of living and culture’. This statement is related to which one of the following concepts?
(1) Probablism
(2) Determinism
(3) Possibilism
(4) Stop and Go Determinism
Answer- 3
Q.38. Which school of thought first developed the idea of possiblism?
(1) Russian School
(2) German School
(3) British School
(4) French School
Answer- 4
Q.39. “The dominant idea of all geographical progress is that of terrestrial unity”. This statement is attributed to:
(1) Friedrich Ratzel
(2) Vidal de la Blache
(3) Richard Hartshorne
(4) Jean Brunhes
Answer- 2
Q.40. Which one among the following perspectives was responsible for radical transformation in the sprit and purpose of geography?
(1) Structuralism
(2) Post – modernism
(3) Humanism
(4) Quantification
Answer- 4
Q.41. Which one of the following states in India recored the lowest sex ratio as per 2011 census?
(1) Uttarakhand
(2) Tamil Nadu
(3) West Bengal
(4) Himachal Pradesh
Answer- 3
Q.42. Which one of the following countries recorded highest population density as per U.N. Demographic Year Book, 2010?
(1) India
(2) Japan
(3) Bangladesh
(4) Pakistan
Answer- 3
Q.43. Which one of the following statements correctly depicts the threshold according to Central Place Model?
(1) Point at which consumer movement is minimum
(2) Distance far which consumer will travel for a service
(3) Minimum number of people needed to support a service
(4) Economic base of a centre
Answer- 3
Q.44. Which one of the following groups of states in Indian recorded Sex Ratio higher than 950 according to year 2011 census?
(1) Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, Telengana
(2) Andhra Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra
(3) Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Andhra Pradesh
(4) Haryana, Bihar, Andhra Pradesh
Answer- 1
Q.45. Which one of the following Models is explained by the given figure below?
(1) Weber’s Model
(2) Central Place Model
(3) Von Thunen Model
(4) Gravity Model
Answer-2
Q.46. Which one of the following code is correctly depicting the pattern of distribution of population among cities by ‘d’ curve in the given graph?
Code:
(1) Primate
(2 Stepped order
(3) Binary
(4) Rank Size Rule
Answer-3
Q.47. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List – I (Settlement Alignment)
List – II (Settlement Pattern)
(i) Uniform
(ii) Star Shaped
(iii) Linear
(iv) Cluster
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) ii iii iv i
(2) iii iv ii i
(3) i ii iii iv
(4) iv iii ii i
Answer-2
Q.48. Which one of the following statements indicates to the potential use of a service at a location according to Gravity Model?
(1) Direct relationship to both population size and distance
(2) Inverse relationship to both population size and distance
(3) Direct relationship to both population size and inverse relationship to distance
(4) Direct relationship to distance and inverse relationship to population
Answer-3
Q.49. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List-I (Demographic terms)
(a) Cohart
(b) Natural increase
(c) Total fertlity rate
(d) Dependency ratio
List-II (Explanation)
(i) birth rate minus deah rate
(ii) A population group unified by a specific common characteristic
(iii) Average number of children that a woman will bear through her child bearing years
(iv) Measure in terms of number of dependants against productive age groups
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) iii iv ii i
(2) ii i iii iv
(3) i iv iii ii
(4) iv ii i iii
Answer- 2
Q.50. Which one of the following groups of states of India recorded more than one fourth of total population of the country in the census year 2011?
(1) Uttar Pradesh, Assam, Punjab
(2) Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka
(3) Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Punjab
(4) Uttar Pradesh, Gujarat, Haryana
Answer-2
Q.51. Among the following scholars, who introduced the concept of ‘Least-Transport-Cost Location’ using the frame of ‘Location triangle’?
(1) W.Isard
(2) M.K Bandman
(3) D.M. Smith
(4) A. Weber
Answer-4
Q.52. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List-I (Economy)
(a) Subsistence Economy
(b) Commercial Economy
(c) Intensive Subsistence Economy
(d) Extensive Subsistence Economy
List-II (Features)
(i) Market competition as primary force shaping the production patterns
(ii) Self-sufficiency, low production an low population density
(iii) Self-sufficiency, high production and high population density
(iv) Little exchange of goods and only limited need for markets
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) ii iii i iv
(2) iv i iii ii
(3) iii ii iv i
(4) i iv iii ii
Answer- 2
Q.53. Which one of the following code is correct showing number of vertices, edges, and diameter for the given network?
Vertices Edges Diameter
(1) 10 7 5
(2) 10 10 7
(3) 10 5 6
(4) 10 8 7
Answer- 2
Q.54. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List-I (Whitlessey’ Agricultural Religions)
(a) Commercial Dairy Farming
(b) Commercial Grain Farming
(c) Nomadic Herding
(d) Commericial Plantations
List-II (Name of Countries)
(i) Argentina
(ii) Sri Lanka
(iii) New Zealand
(iv) Mangolia
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) iii i iv ii
(2) i ii iii iv
(3) iv iii ii i
(4) ii iv i iii
Answer-1
Q.55. Which one of the following factors most dominants in the selections of high- tech firms of Silicon Valley in California?
(1) Cheap labour
(2) Access to the market
(3) High speed transportation
(4) Agglomeration economy
Answer-4
Q.56. The Rimmer model for the development of land transport system in less developed economics was proposd in which of the following years?
(1) 1975
(2) 1976
(3) 1977
(4) 1978
Answer-3
Q.57. The formula 
where PI= Agricultural Productivity Index; Y= Total production of selected crops in unit area; Yn= Total production of same selected crops at national level; T= Total cropped area of the unit; Tn = Total cropped area at national scale.
(1) Bhatia
(2) Enyedi
(3) Weaver
(4) Shafi
Answer- 2
Q.58. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List-I (Countires)
(a) Liberia
(b) Guinea
(c) Togo
(d) Niger
List-II (Mineral Reserve)
(i) Argentina
(ii) Sri Lanka
(iii) New Zealand
(iv) Mangolia
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) iv iii ii i
(2) i iv iii ii
(3) ii i iv iii
(4) iii ii i iv
Answer-2
Q.59. Which one of the following conditions Alfred Weber introduced in his concept of ‘Locational Triangle’?
(1) Both ‘R1’ and ‘R2’ are found universally
(2) ‘R1’ is fixed but ‘R2’ is found everywhere and both are pure
(3) Both ‘R1’ and R2 are fixed and pure
(4) Both ‘R1’ and ‘R2’ are fixed and gross
(Where: ‘R1’ and ‘R2’ are two raw materials)
Answer- 4
Q.60. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List-I (Sectors of the Economy)
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) Quaternary
List-II (Activities)
(i) Research endavours
(ii) Train services
(iii) Pearl culture
(iv) Spinning cotton year
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) iii iv ii i
(3) ii i iv iii
(4) iv iii i ii
Answer-2
Q.61. In which one of the following book/work did Mackinder in 1919 renamed his theory of ‘pivot area’ as ‘Heartland’?
(1) World war and geography
(2) The Democratic ideals and Reality
(3) The round world and the winning of the peace
(4) Foreign Affairs
Answer-2
Q.62. The Organic Theory of state was propounded by:
(1) Ratzel
(2) Mackinder
(3) Isaiah Bowman
(4) Haushoffer
Answer-1
Q.63. The book ‘Geography of Peace’ is authored written by:
(1) Mahan
(2) Spykman
(3) Haushoffer
(4) Ratzel
Answer-2
Q.64. Which of the following catagories does Chile belong to its physical shape?
(1) Compact and elongated
(2) Elongated
(3) Fragmented and elongated
(4) Fragmented
Answer-2
Q.65. Whose works epitomized the relationship or political geography with foreign policy?
(1) Adolf Hitler
(2) Friedrich Ratzel
(3) Mackinder
(4) Karl Haushofer
Answer-4
Q.66. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List-I (Country)
(a) Luxembourg
(b) Algeria
(c) Chile
(d) Kazakistan
List-II (Official Language)
(i) Arabic
(ii) Russian
(iii) French
(iv) Spanish
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) i iii ii iv
(2) ii iv iii i
(3) iii i iv ii
(4) iv ii i iii
Answer-3
Q.67. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List-I (Names of Books)
(a) Human Universals
(b) The Social Conquest of the Earth
(c) Not by Gene Alone
(d) Coevolution
List-II (Names of Authors)
(i) W.H. Durham
(ii) Donald E. Brown
(iii) Edward O-Wilson
(iv) Peter J. Richerson
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) iv i ii iii
(3) ii iii iv i
(4) iii iv i ii
Answer-3
Q.68. In India how many are the officially recognised languages?
(1) 20
(2) 21
(3) 22
(4) 23
Answer-3
Q.69. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List-I (Religious Community)
(a) Christian
(b) Buddhist
(c) Sikhs
(d)Jains
List-II (Population Share (%), 2011)
(i) 1.7
(ii) 0.4
(iii) 2.3
(iv) 0.7
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) iv iii ii i
(3) iii iv i ii
(4) ii i iv iii
Answer-3
Q.70. Which of the following characteristic features are possessed by the Nordic race of India?
(1) Long stature and round face
(2) Medium stature and round face
(3) Medium stature and long face
(4) Long stature and long face
Answer-4
Q.71. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the selection indicators for conducting any study of development process?
(1) Either input or output indicators must be selected
(2) Negative and positive indicators must not be clubbed with each other
(3) Indicators must emerge out of the concept of development defined in the study.
(4) Indicators of income and expenditure can be clubbed together
Answer-1
Q.72. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List-I (Name of City)
(a) Kanchipuram
(b) Jaisalmer
(c) Kodaikanal
(d) Bhilai
List-II (Period of being planned)
(i) Post-Independence
(ii) Colonial
(iii) Medieval
(iv) Ancient
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) ii iii iv i
(3) iii iv i ii
(4) iv iii ii i
Answer-4
Q.73. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below:
Assertion (A): The partition of India in 1947 provided an impetus for town planning activities in the country.
Reason (R): Resettlement of displaced persons and providing them employment opportunities created a big opportunity before the town planners to construct new town and make provision of amenities and facilities in existing towns especially in north Indian states.
Code:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer-1
Q.74. Which one of the following criteria was used to demarcate 15 agroclimatic regions, which were accepted by the Planning Commission of India (now NITI Aayog) to initiate regional approach to agricultural planning during the eighth Five-Year Plan?
(1) Climate, soil characteristics, and rainfall
(2) Climate, soil characteristics and water availability
(3) Climate, soil characteristics, rainfall and water availability
(4) Climate, cropping pattern, rainfall and water availability
Answer-3
Q.75. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List-I (Name of scholars developed scheme For delineation of planning regions)
(a) Bhat and Prakasarao
(b) P. Sengupta
(c) C.S Chandrasekhar
(d) V. Nath
List-II (Period of being planned)
(i) 42
(ii) 35
(iii) 48
(iv) 51
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) ii iii iv i
(3) iii iv i ii
(4) iv i ii iii
Answer- 4
Q.76. Which one of the following criteria was used to delineate the National Capital Region for planning purpose?
(1) Functional unity and Physiographic characteristics
(2) Functional unity, Administrative contiguity and demographic charateristics
(3) Functional unity, Administrative contiguity and distance from New Delhi
(4) Functional unity, Physiographic and demographic and Administrative contiguity
Answer-4
Q.77. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List-I (Dimension of development)
(a) Economic
(b) Social
(c) Political
(d) Ecological and Environmental
List-II (Indicator of development)
(i) Percentage of reclaimed land to total waste land
(ii) Percentage of minority voters to total minority electors
(iii) Percentage of female literates to total female population
(iv) Agriculture production per hectare
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) ii iii iv i
(3) iii iv i ii
(4) iv iii ii i
Answer-4
Q.78. Which one of the following statements is not true about the concept of developmnt?
(1) Development is a continuous process
(2) Development is a multi- faceted processd
(3) Development stands for growth without change
(4) Meaning of development change in time and space.
Answer-3
Q.79. Read the following statements and select the correct answer using the code given below:
(1) A perspective plan may also be termed as long term plan
(2) Perspective plans are prepared for a period of 20-25 years
(3) A perspective plan do not ensure flexibility
(4) Perspective plan ensure spatial integration of plans at different hierarchical levels.
Code:
(1) Only (a) is correct
(2) (a) and (b) are correct
(3) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(4) (a), (b) and (d) are correct
Answer-4
Q.80. Read the following statements and select the correct answer using the code giver below:
(a) Summation of ranks method is best suited to measure development levels, when data used are highly skewed
(b) Summation of ranks method is quite simple and easy to handle
(c) Z-score method is the robust and most reliable among all the methods used to measure levels of development
(d) Use of Principal Component Analysis method should be avoided if inter-correlation among different components of development weak or doubtful
Code:
(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(2) (a) and (b) are correct
(3) (a), (b) and (d) are correct
(4) (b) and (d) are correct
Answer-1
Q.81. Which one of the following countries holds the first rank in commercial dairy farming?
(1) USA
(2) India
(3) China
(4) Pakistan
Answer-1
Q.82. Which one of the following years the modern cotton textile mill was first of all established in Maharashtra?
(1) 1850
(2) 1854
(3) 1858
(4) 1862
Answer-2
Q.83. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List-I (Name of Dams)
(a) Mayurkashi
(b) Mettur
(c) Nagarjunasagar
(d) Hirakud
List-II (States)
(i) Tamil Nadu
(ii) Andhra Pradesh
(iii) Odisha
(iv) West Bengal
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) iv i ii iii
(2) i ii iii iv
(3) iv iii ii i
(4) iii ii iv i
Answer-1
Q.84. Which one of the following dates is correct for the normal withdrawal of south-west monsoon from Indian Territory?
(1) September, 1
(2) September, 5
(3) September, 10
(4) September, 15
Answer-1
Q.85. Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh is known for which one of the following are deposits?
(1) Bauxite
(2) Anthracite
(3) Magnetite
(4) Muscovite
Answer-3
Q.86. Who among the following architect-planner prepared Master Plan for Chandigrah City?
(1) Charles Correa
(2) Frank Lloyd Wright
(3) Edwin Lutyens
(4) Le-Corbusier
Answer- 4
Q.87. Jharkhand ranks third after which one of the following group of states in the availability of coal reserves in India?
(1) West Bengal and Chhatisgarh
(2) Odisha and Chhatisgarh
(3) Odisha and West Bengal
(4) Chhatisgarh and Karnataka
Answer-2
Q.88. Adityapur Special Economic Zone (SEZ) is fasmous for:
(1) Engineering and Machine tools
(2) Wool Textiles
(3) Automobiler and Autocomponents
(4) Dairy products
Answer-3
Q.89. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List-I (States)
(a) Haryana
(b) Karnataka
(c) Kerala
(d) Punjab
List-II Per Capita SGDP in, 000; 2015-16)
(i) 156
(ii) 115
(iii) 180
(iv) 146
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) ii iii iv i
(3) iii iv i ii
(4) iv i ii iii
Answer-3
Q.90. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below:
Assertion (A): India has not been able to bridge its trade deficity.
Reason (R): India’s exports in terms of value has been declining.
Code:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer-3
Q.91. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List-I (Map Type)
(a) Chorochromatic
(b) Choroschematic
(c) Choropleth
(d) Isopleth
List-II (Information Content)
(i) Showing regional variation in distribution by shades
(ii) areal distribution by Tints
(iii) showing imaginary lines joining places of equal value
(iv) areal distribution by symbols
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) i iv ii iii
(2) iv i iii ii
(3) ii iv i ii
(4) iv ii iii i
Answer-3
Q.92. On a topographical map of 1:50,000 scale the contour interval is given as 10 meters. Place ‘A’ is situated on a contour of 200 m MSL and another place ‘B’ is located on a contour of 240m MSL. The distance between ‘A’ and ‘B’ on the map is 4.0 cms. The correct gradiant between ‘A’ and ‘B’ therefore would be:
(1) 1/30
(2) 1/40
(3) 1/50
(4) 1/60
Answer-3
Q.93. Which one of the following code is correct Rn value of the given distribution of 6 settlements of an area of gentle topography?
(1) 0.95
(2) 1.45
(3) 1.63
(4) 1.86
Answer- 1
Q.94. Which one of the following organisations looks after the receiving and processing of remote sensing data in India?
(1) SHAR Centre
(2) SDS Centre
(3) LPS Centre
(4) NRSC
Answer-4
Q.95. Which one of the following is correct sequences of various EMR spectrum bands in an ascending order of wavelength?
(1) Blue-Green-Red-Ultraviolet
(2) Red-Blue-Green-Ultraviolet
(3) Ultraviolet-Blue-Green-Red
(4) Ultraviolet-Green-Blue-Red
Answer-3
Q.96. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below:
Assertion (A): Radars are considered active sensors.
Reason (R): These sensors detect objects and their ranges using radio waves.
Code:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer-2
Q.97. A set of sample of 20 places of mean annual rainfall were randomly selected from a normally distributed universe that has mean rainfall of 320 cm. The sample mean was recorded 250 cm with standard of 150 cm. Which one of the following significance tests is correct for the selected samples?
(1) Z – test
(2) X2 – test
(3) F – Test
(4) t – test
Answer-4
Q.98. In a frequency distribution of X series having 6 integers wth missing one, Xi, among them, the parameters of calculating mean, X̅, are as ∑fx = 370 (excluding frequency of missing Xi which is fi=10) ∑f=58 (including frequency of missing integer) and X̅ = 7.586. Which one of the following inters is approximately correct for missing Xi?
(1) 6
(2) 7
(3) 8
(4) 9
Answer-2
Q.99. Which one of the following equations represents a true mathematical characteristics of mean?
(1) Σ (X − X̅) = minimum
(2) Σ (X − X̅) = 0
(3) Σ (X − X̅) = maximum
(4) Σ (X − X̅) = infinite
Answer- 2
Q.100. Which one of the following scales is correctly measure the rank-size distribution of settlements?
(1) Nominal
(2) Ordinal
(3) Interval
(4) Ratio
Answer- 4