MOCK TEST ON GEOGRAPHY PYQS DEC 2020 JUNE 2021 SHIFT 2 (1-100) NTA UGC NET

MOCK TEST ON GEOGRAPHY PYQS DEC 2020 JUNE 2021 SHIFT 2 (1-100) NTA UGC NET

GEOGRAPHY PYQS DEC 2020 JUNE 2021 SHIFT 2 NTA UGC NET

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GEOGRAPHY PYQS DEC 2020 JUNE 2021 SHIFT 2 (1-100) NTA UGC NET. 

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GEOGRAPHY SHIFT 2 DEC 2020 JUNE 2021

GEOGRAPHY PYQS DEC 2020 JUNE 2021 SHIFT 2 (1-100)

  • This Test Contains 100 Questions
  • Total Questions is 100
  • All Questions is Compulsory
  • No Negative Marking
  • Specific Time given for this quiz
  • Quiz / Test will start after clicking on Start Button
  • After Completing Quiz, can see result in Percentages (%)
  • Attempt Carefully, so lets start, best wishes

 

 

 

1 / 100

Q.1. Who among the following challenged the theory of origin of species?

(1) P.E. James

(2) De Varies

(3) H. Robinson

(4) K.K. Park

2 / 100

Q.2. The ‘economic zone’ of India from the coastline extends upto a distance of

(1) 112 nautical miles

(2) 120 nautical miles

(3) 200 nautical miles

(4) 320 nautical miles

3 / 100

Q.3. A Free Trade Zone, in international trade, happens to be there, where

(1) All the participating member countries impose a common tariff on imports from non-member countries

(2) All the participating countries allow free movement of labour and capital

(3) Member countries abolish tariff and quotas on trade but maintain independence to impose restrictions on imports from non-member countries

(4) Member countries adopt common economic policies on issues such as agriculture, transport, industry and regional policy

4 / 100

Q.4. Who among the following described geography as the science of map making?

(1) Thales of Miletus

(2) Strabo

(3) Hecataeus

(4) Cladius Ptolemy

5 / 100

Q.5. The outcome of Kyoto Protocol 1997 agreement was

(A) 5.2% cut in emission of carbon dioxide

(B) Agreement can not be invalidated

(C) The protocol was to be effective from 1997

(D) The protocol was to be effective from 1999

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) and (B) only

(2) (B) and (C) only

(3) (A) and (D) only

(4) (C) and (D) only

6 / 100

Q.6. Which is not true regarding mountain climate of India?

(A) Sharp contrasts in temperature between the sunny and shaded slopes

(B) Diurnal range of temperature is high

(C) Uncertain character of rainfall with drought proneness and crop failures

(D) High temperatures accompanied by high humidity

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) and (C) only

(2) (B) and (C) only

(3) (A) and (B) only

(4) (C) and (D) only

7 / 100

Q.7. In which of his book in 1919, Mackinder rechristened his concept of ‘Pivot Area’ as 'Heart land'

(1) The Round world and the winning of peace

(2) Foreign Affairs

(3) World war and Geography

(4) The Democratic ideals and Reality

8 / 100

Q.8. Which one of the following states/UT in India have recorded high decrease in infant mortality rate during last 3 decades-

(1) Jammu and Kashmir

(2) Uttar Pradesh

(3) Tamil Nadu

(4) Madhya Pradesh

9 / 100

Q.9. The correct sequence of the states in ascending order in terms of Mangrove vegetation coverage area is

(A) Goa

(B) Andhra Pradesh

(C) Odisha

(D) West Bengal

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) (B), (A), (C), (D)

(2) (A), (B), (C), (D)

(3) (B), (A), (D), (C)

(4) (A), (B), (D), (C)

10 / 100

Q.10. Which one of the following statements are correct?

(A) Ocean currents provide a high degree of regulation to the thermal environments of the earth's surface

(B) On a local scale, warm water currents bring moderating influence to coasts in arctic latitudes

(C) Cold currents are not able to bring down the temperature of tropical deserts

(D) Density differences may also cause flow of ocean water

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (C) and (D) only

(2) (A), (B) and (D) only

(3) (B), (C) and (D) only

(4) (A), (B) and (C) only

11 / 100

Q.11. Which group of countries is known as the emerging markets?

(A) Taiwan - Japan

(B) India - Brazil

(C) Russia - China

(D) Russia - Chile

(E) U.S.A -  China

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) and (E) only

(2) (B) and (C) only

(3) (C) and (D) only

(4) (D) and (E) only

12 / 100

Q.12. Which one of the following in the correct sequence in the Development of German school of thought?

(A) Ratzel –Paschal- Hettner-Troll

(B) Paschal-Ratzel-Hettner-Troll

(C) Ratzel-Troll- Paschal- Hettner

(D)) Troll-Panchal-Hettner -Troll

(E) Hettner -Paschal –Troll- Ratzel

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A)

(2) (B)

(3) (C)

(4) (D)

13 / 100

Q.13. The process of evaporation in ocean water is affected by

(A) salinity

(B) latitude

(C) season

(D) winds

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) and (B) only

(2) (B) and (C) only

(3) (B), (C) and (D) only

(4) (A), (B), (C) and (D)

14 / 100

Q.14. What will happen if the earth absorbs all the incident energy?

(1) Constant heating up

(2) Constant cooling up

(3) Constant transmission

(4) Constant reflection

15 / 100

Q.15In which month, the maximum extension of sea ice is found in Arctic Ocean

(1) December

(2) February

(3) January

(4) May

16 / 100

Q.16. Which one of the following cluster regions in the world are great clusters of population?

(1) East Asia, North America, South Asia, Africa

(2) East Asia, South Asia, Europe, Central Africa

(3) East Asia, South Asia, Europe, North Africa

(4) East Asia, South Asia, Europe, North America

17 / 100

Q.17. The term which describes that population will continue to grow even after fertility rates decline is known a

(1) Demographic momentum

(2) Demographic transition

(3) Rate of Natural increase

(4) Rate of fertility decline

18 / 100

Q.18. Who among the following gave the idea of the origin of monsoon in India?

(1) Al -Biruni

(2) Al- Masudi

(3) Ibn -Hakkal

(4) Ibn- Khaldun

19 / 100

Q.19. The range of pH value for unpolluted rain water is between

(1) Ph4 and Ph5

(2) Ph5 and Ph6

(3) Ph6 and pH7

(4) pH7 and Ph8

20 / 100

Q.20. Match List I with List II:

List I

Hydro power units

(A) Dehar

(B) Srisailam

(C) Kalindi

(D) Sharavathy

 

List II

State

(I) Karnataka

(II) Karnataka

(III) Andhra Pradesh

(IV) Himachal Pradesh

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

             (A)       (B)       (C)       (D)

(1)        I           IV        III        II

(2)        IV        II         III        I

(3)        IV        III        II         I

(4)        III        II         IV        I

21 / 100

Q.21. Who among the following gave the concept of “Unity in Diversity”?

(1) A.V. Humboldt

(2)  Hettner

(3) C. Ritter

(4) O. Paschel

22 / 100

Q.22. Arrange the following in order on the basis of year of meeting report

(A) COP21

(B) KYOTO protocol

(C) First Earth Summit

(D) IPCC Report

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (C), (B), (D), (A)

(2) (B), (D), (A), (C)

(3) (A), (C), (D), (B)

(4) (D), (C), (A), (B)

23 / 100

Q.23. Which of the following faunal groups has the highest percentage of endemic species?

(1) Amphibians

(2) Birds

(3) Insects

(4) Reptiles

24 / 100

Q.24. Which one is the correct ascending order of satellite sensors in terms of higher resolution?

(A) RBV of Landsat

(B) TM of Landsat

(C) LISS II of IRS-IC

(D) PAN of IKONOS-2

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (D), (C), (B)

(2) (A), (C), (B), (D)

(3) (D), (A), (B), (C)

(4) (B), (C), (A), (D)

25 / 100

Q.25. Which of the following statements are correct about vertical distribution of temperature in oceans

(A) The sun rays have no effect below 600 feet

(B) Inspite of movement of water, large part of sea in relatively cold

(C) 80% of water in the oceans has a temperature permanently below 40°F

(D) The vertical rate of decrease in temperature from equator to pole is the same

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B) and (C) only

(2) (B), (C) and (D) only

(3) (C) and (D) only

(4) (A) and (D) only

26 / 100

Q.26. The GIS based map can be

(A) Updated

(B) Edited

(C) Displayed

(D) Viewed in google web portal

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) and (B) only

(2) (B), (C) and (D) only

(3) (A), Brand (C) only

(4) (A), (B), (C) and (D) only

27 / 100

Q.27. Who among the following were the believers of Environmental Determinism

(A) C. Darwin

(B) Humboldt

(C) Ratzel

(D) Semple

(E) Blache

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (C), and (D) only

(2) (A), (B) and (E) only

(3) (A) and (B) only

(4) (A) and (E) only

28 / 100

Q.28. Which of the following is not associated with structure of a tropical cyclone?

(1)  Eye Wall

(2) Spiral Bands

(3) Annular Bands

(4) Ekman Spirals

29 / 100

Q.29. Which of the following phenomena are not involved in global radiation balance?

(A) Pyranometer

(B) Anemometer

(C) Albedo

(D) Sensible heat

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) and (B) only

(2) (B) and (C) only

(3) (C) and (D) only

(4) (A) and (D) only

30 / 100

Q.30. The sea plains are almost absent between:

(1) 20°S-30°S Latitudes

(2) 60°S-70°S Latitudes

(3) 40°S-50°S Latitudes

(4) 30°S-40°S Latitudes

31 / 100

Q.31. Arrange the given regions/states in ascending order of wind and cyclone damage risk zone

(A) Eastern Coastal plain

(B) Rajasthan

(C) Most part of Maharashtra

(D) Karnataka (except coastal area)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (C), (B), (D)

(2) (C), (B), (A) (D)

(3) (D), (C), (B), (A)

(4) (B), (C), (D), (A)

32 / 100

Q.32. Which of the following is not an appropriate strategy used to promote qualitative research validation?

(1) Peer review

(2) Triangulation method

(3) Extended fieldwork

(4) Random validation of assignments

33 / 100

Q.33. Match List I with List II:

List I

Goals of National Water Mission

(A) Goal-1

(B) Goal-2

(C) Goal-3

(D) Goal- 5

List II

Items

(I) Basin level integrated water resource management

(II) Attention to vulnerable areas

(III) Water conservation by promotion of citizen and state actions

(IV) Comprehensive water data base

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

             (A)       (B)       (C)       (D)

(1)        I           II         III        IV

(2)        II         IV        I           III

(3)        III        II         I           IV

(4)        IV        III        II         I

34 / 100

Q.34. Which of the following describes central place model

(1) Spatial patterns of urban and outlying areas based on the flow of goods and services

(2) Spatial patterns of income groups

(3) Spatial patterns of residential places

(4) Spatial pattern of cultural places

35 / 100

Q.35. Which of the following statements are incorrect about the growth of tourism industry in the world?

(A) Steady growth in real incomes of the people in the world has contributed to growth of tourism

(B) Increased desire of the people to experience different cultures and landscapes has contributed to tourism growth over time

(C) Many countries have heavily invested in development of tourism infrastructure to encourage tourism

(D) There are little range of destinations open for the middle-income group travellers

(E) People from developing countries now dominate the global tourism

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B) only

(2) (B), (C) only

(3) (D), (E) only

(4) (C), (D), (E) only

36 / 100

Q.36. Which one of the following explains rapid growth of information and technology industry in South India as compared to North India.

(A) Good Governance

(B) Good infrastructure and network accessibility

(C) Large number of higher technical institutes

(D) Lower Labour cost

(E) High proportion of manufacturing workers

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (B), (C) and (E) only

(2) (B), (C) and (D) only

(3) (A), (B) and (C) only

(4) (A), (B) and (D) only

37 / 100

Q.37. Match List I with List II:

List I

Arab Geographer

(A) Al-Masudi

(B) Al-Idrisi

(C) Al-Biruni

(D) Ibn-Khaldun

List II

Books

(I) Kitab al Hind

(II) Muqaddimah

(III) Kitab Muruj-al-Dhahab

(IV) Tabula Rogeriana

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

             (A)       (B)       (C)       (D)

(1)        III        IV        I           II

(2)        I           IV        III        II

(3)        II         III        IV        I

(4)        IV        I           II         III

38 / 100

Q.38. Laminar flow of air refers to

(1) Movement of particles in all direction

(2) Movement of particles in one direction

(3) Deflection in the direction of surface winds

(4) Decrease of air pressure between two isobars

39 / 100

Q.39. The line of equal distribution at 45° used for measuring inequalities is called

(1) Scatter diagram

(2) Histogram

(3) Lorenz curve

(4) Ogive curve

40 / 100

Q.40. Environmental determinism was criticised and opposed by

(A) Huntington on and Semple

(B) Vidal de la Blache and L. Febvre

(C) Humboldt and Ratzel

(D) Bitter and L. Febvre

(E) Blache and Reclus

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) and (B) only

(2) (B) and (C) only

(3) (D) and (E) only

(4) (B) and (E) only

41 / 100

Q.41. Which one of the following is closely associated with westerlies?

(A) Furious fifties

(B) Boyle's gas law

(C) Walker circulation

(D) Rossby waves

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) and (B) only

(2) (B) and (C) only

(3) (C) and (D) only

(4) (A) and (D) only

42 / 100

Q.42. Identify the terms associated with ozone measurement

(A) Dobson

(B) Spectrophotometer

(C) Pyranometer

(D) Planimeter

(E) Anemometer

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) and (B) only

(2) (B) and (C) only

(3) (A) and (C) only

(4) (D) and (E) only

43 / 100

Q.43. The most accurate representation of culture units are given below, Arrange them from highest to lowest

(A) Complex

(B) Realm

(C) Region

(D) Trait

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (B), (C), (A), (D)

(2) (B), (D), (A), (C)

(3) (C), (A), (D), (B)

(4) (B), (C), (D), (A)

44 / 100

Q.44. Which one of the following is vastly absorbed by the ocean surface?

(1) Visible wave radiation

(2) Medium wave radiation

(3) long wave radiation

(4) Ultra-violet wave radiation

45 / 100

Q.45. Which one of the following are considered while preparing future population projections?

(1) Crude death rates and their temporal changes

(2) Rate of population increase and future assumptions of death and bath rates past data

(3) General fertility rates and their temporal changes

(4) Age and sex composition rates and their temporal changes

46 / 100

Q.46. In concentric zone model, the correct order of zones from city core to periphery in

(A) Low-Class residential

(B) Whole sale light manufacturing

(C) CBD

(D) Medium class residential

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(1) (A), (B, (C), (D)

(2) (B), (C), (D), (A)

(3) (C), (B), (A), (D)

(4) (D), (B), (C), (A)

47 / 100

Q.47. Which of the following statements are correct about the state of Himachal Pradesh in India?

(A) High potentialities for hydro-power generation

(B) High literacy

(C) High potentialities of horticulture development

(D) Rich in mineral resources

(E) High proportion of table land

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A). (B), (E) only

(2) (A), (B), (D) only

(3) (C), D), (E) only

(4) (A), (B), (C) only

48 / 100

Q.48. The agricultural activities from the city centre to the periphery propounded by Von Thunen: Arrange it

(A) Grain farming

(B) Market Gardening

(C) Three fold system

(D) Firewood and lumbering product

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (D), (B), (A), (C)

(2) (A), (B), (C), (D)

(3) (C), (D), (A), (B)

(4) (B), (D), (A), (C)

49 / 100

Q.49. Match List I with List II

List I

Process

(A) Photosphere

(B) Maunder minimum

(C) ABC

(D) Pollen Grain

List II

Parameter

(I) Sunspot

(II) Solar irradiance

(III) Palynology

(IV) Formation of layers of pollutants

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

             (A)       (B)       (C)       (D)

(1)        II         III        IV        I

(2)        II         I           IV        III

(3)        II         IV        I           III

(4)        II         I           III        IV

50 / 100

Q.50. Hydraulic Slope Theory is Given by

(1) C. Darwin

(2) W.M. Davis

(3) W.Penck

(4) R.E. Harton

51 / 100

Q.51. Which one of the following group of states/UT recorded more than 30 percent of urban population according to census 2011 data?

(1) Andhra Pradesh, Kerala, Chhattisgarh, Haryana

(2) Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Punjab

(3) Tripura, Kerala, Punjab, Chhattisgarh

(4) Sikkim, Kerala, Punjab, Goa

52 / 100

Q.52. Which one of the following refers to a relationship between a cultural group and natural environment?

(1) Cultural ecology

(2) Cultural convergence

(3) Cultural diffusion

(4) Cultural hearth

53 / 100

Q.53. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)

Assertion (A): Ford is not a suitable location for a port.

Reason (R): Fiords are drowned glaciated valleys with narrow deep channels along the coast.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

54 / 100

Q.54. Which of the following statements are correct about sea water

(A) The density of sea water depends upon temperature, pressure and salinity

(B) Convergence of water has no effect on density

(C) The thermal expansion of water varies with the increase and decrease of temperature

(D) In the middle latitudes, due to an excess of precipitation the density is higher

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) and (D) only

(2) (A) and (C) only

(3) (B) and (C) only

(4) (C) and (D) only

55 / 100

Q.55. Which one of the following exert maximum tide producing force on the ocean water?

(1) Sun

(2) Moon

(3) Venus

(4) Mars

56 / 100

Q.56. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The process in which one plate slides beneath another plate is zone of convergence

Statement II: Sea floor spreading becomes more prominent along the zone of convergences

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement and Statement II are true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

57 / 100

Q.57. As the wave approach coast, the wave form changes radically. Which one of the following is correct sequence of changes?

(A) Closely spaced crests

(B) Wave breaker

(C) Swash

(D) Back wash

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (B), (C), (A), (D)

(2) (A), (D), (C), (B)

(C), (B), (D), (A)

(4) (A), (B), (C), (D)

58 / 100

Q.58. Match List I with List II:

List I

(Peaks)

(A) Gurusikhar

(B) Dodabeta

(C) Armakonda

(D) Dhupgarh

List II

(Range)

(I) Nilgiri

(II) Eastern Ghats

(III) Satpura

(IV) Aravalli

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

             (A)       (B)       (C)       (D)

(1)        II         IV        III        I

(2)        IV        I           II         III

(3)        II         IV        I           III

(4)        IV        II         I           III

59 / 100

Q.59. Which of the following food stuff consume highest amount of water?

(1) Rice

(3) Beef

(3) Chocolate

(4) Banana

60 / 100

Q.60. ‘Save the Silent Valley’ movement, a social movement to save the tropical green forest from destruction for a regional development project was territorially based in Indian State of-

(1) West Bengal

(2) Bihar

(3) Kerala

(4) Gujarat

61 / 100

Q.61. River regime with reference to flow refers to

(A) Pattern of seasonal flow of water

(B) Rivers differ in their regime due to climatic conditions

(C) River regime is represented mathematically by cumecs

(D) River regime of Narmada and Jhelum are similar

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) and (B) only

(2) (B) and (C) only

(3) (C) and (D) only

(4) (A) and (D) only

62 / 100

Q.62. The concept of Lebensraum became popular in the discipline of political Geography after the publication of-

(1) Making Political Geography

(2) Geographical Pivot of History

(3) Cosmography

(4) Politische Geographic

63 / 100

Q.63. Who is usually given the credit for establishing the validity of the idea that there was an Ice Age during which ice sheets covered much of the Northern Europe?

(1) Jukes

(2) Agassiz

(3) Ramsay

(4) W. Penck

64 / 100

Q.64. Which one of the following periods did archaeologists find the evidence of permanent human settlements?

(1) The Palaeolithic Period

(2) The Bronze Age Period

(3) The Neolithic Period

(4) The Classical Era Period

65 / 100

Q.65. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)

Assertion (A): Among the states of India Madhya Pradesh recorded highest percentage of Scheduled Tribe population in census 2011.

Reason (R): Madhya Pradesh in located in central part of India dominated by large area under forests with least road connectivity and accessibility.

In the light of the above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

66 / 100

Q.66. Match List I with List II:

List I

(A) Culture

(B) Cultural Complex

(C) Cultural Region

(D) Cultural Integration

List II

(I) Culture traits that are functionally interrelated

(II Area that is distinct from surrounding areas in specific characteristic

(III) Specialized behavioural patter under standings and adaptation of a group

(IV) Interlocking nature of the sociological technological and ideological subsystem

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

             (A)       (B)       (C)       (D)

(1)        III        IV        II         I

(2)        III        I           II         IV

(3)        I           II         III        IV

(4)        IV        III        II         I

67 / 100

Q.67. Match List I with List II

List-I

Rivers

(A) Mississippi

(B) Ganga

(C) Narmada

(D) Tiber

 

List-II

Types of Delta

(I) Arcuate

(II) Bird foot

(III) Cuspate

(IV) Estuarine

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

             (A)       (B)       (C)       (D)

(1)        I           III        II         IV

(2)        III        II         I           IV

(3)        II         I           IV        III

(4)        IV        II         III        I

68 / 100

Q.68. Cirques are landform of

(1) First order

(2) Second order

(3) Third order

(4) Fourth order

69 / 100

Q.69. What is known as Fossil water

(1) Connate water

(2) Meteoric water

(3) Plutonic water

(4) Juvenile water

70 / 100

Q.70. Which of the following mines have their association with gypsum?

(A) Nagaur

(B) Lapin Buru

(C) Bhadwah

(D) Ghagidith

(E) Jasmar

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B) and (C) only

(2) (B), (C) and (D) only

(3) (C), (D) and (E) only

(4) (A), (C) and (E) only

71 / 100

Q.71. Which of the following atmospheric gases has not been represented by correct symbol?

(A) Neon - Ne

(B) Helium - He

(C) Nitrous oxide - NO

(D) Krypton-KR

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) and (B) only

(2) (B) and (C) only

(3) (C) and (D) only

(4) (A) and (D) only

72 / 100

Q.72. Which of the following are not the properties of correlation coefficient?

(A) r is independent of the choice of origin

(B) r is independent of scale

(C) r lies between -1 and +1

(D) r = +1.0 indicates a perfectly negative correlation

(E) r= -1.0 indicates a perfectly positive correlation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) and (B) only

(2) (B) and (C) only

(3) (C) and (D) only

(4) (D) and (E) only

73 / 100

Q.73. DEC 2020 JUNE 2021 SHIFT 2 GEOGRAPHY

(1) Bhatia

(2) Enyedi

(3) Weaver

(4) Shafi

74 / 100

Q.74. Northward slopes remain forested in mountainous areas due to

(1) Radiation intensity

(2) Sensible heat

(3) Diffusion of heat

(4) Rayleigh scattering

75 / 100

Q.75. Match List I with List II:

List I

Spectral Band

(A) Blue

(B) Green

(C) Red

(D) Thermal

 

List II

Principal Applications

(I) Vegetation Stress Analysis

(II) Differentiating soil from vegetation

(III) Coastal Mapping

(IV) Vegetation discrimination

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

             (A)       (B)       (C)       (D)

(1)        I           II         III        IV

(2)        III        IV        II         I

(3)        II         IV        I           III

(4)        IV        III        II         I

76 / 100

Q.76. When a manufacturing firm locates very close to its raw material suppliers or to supplying finished products, it is termed as

(1) Urbanisation economies

(2) Internal economies

(3) Marketing economies

(4) Localisation economies

77 / 100

Q.77. The term "Anthropogeographic” was coined by Ratzel in his work

(1) Study of harmonious reciprocal relation of man and nature

(2) Geography of man in terms of individuals and races

(3) Geography of man and his work in relation to earth surface

(4) Organic theory of society and state

78 / 100

Q.78. What will be the median of the distribution represented in the given graph?

(1) 40

(2) 60

(3) 80

(4) 100

79 / 100

Q.79. Which of the following map scales would be most useful for study of the details of geographic features in the landscape of farming community

(1) 1 : 3,000,000

(2) 1 : 1,000,000

(3) 1 : 10,000

(4) 1 : 125,000

80 / 100

Q.80. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)

Assertion (A): According to the 2011 census, the scheduled tribes accounts for 8.6 percent of India's population and are spread largely in forested and hilly regions.

Reason (R): The essential characteristics of scheduled tribe communities are primitive traits, geographical isolation and economic backwardness

In the light of the above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

81 / 100

Q.81. State/UT wise location of Biosphere Reserves in India.

(A) Nokrek in Meghalaya

(B) Cold Desert in Jammu and Kashmir

(C) Simlipal in Odisha

(D) Seshachalam in Tamil Nadu

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) and (B) only

(2) (B) and (C) only

(3) (A) and (C) only

(4) (B) and (D) only

82 / 100

Q.82. Given below are two statements

Statement I: All human actions associated with production marketing and consumption of goods and services are defined as economic activities

Statement II:  All human actions linked not only with production marketing and consumption of goods and services but the time spent on leizure and pleasure activities are also defined as economic activities

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(4) Statement is incorrect but Statement II is correct

83 / 100

Q.83. Which of the following are not functional regions?

(A) Middle Gangs Plain

(B) National Capital Region

(C) Malwa Plateau Region

(D) Kolkata - Howrah Conurbation

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B) only

(2) (A), (C) only

(3) (B), (C), (D) only

(4) (A), (B), (C) only

84 / 100

Q.84. Match List I with List II

List I

Relief Features

(A) Puerto Rico deep

(B) Sunda Trench

(C) Philippine trench

(D) Point Barrow

Last II

Name of Oceans

(1) Pacific Ocean

(II) Atlantic Ocean

(III) Indian Ocean

(IV) Arctic Ocean

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

             (A)       (B)       (C)       (D)

(1)        I           II         III        IV

(2)        IV        III        II         I

(3)        II         III        I           IV

(4)        III        IV        I           II

85 / 100

Q.85. Drift Theory of Wegener was postulated mainly to explain, which one of the following?

(A) Ice Age and Glacial movements

(B) Geological similarities of the coasts and Glaciations

(C) Distribution of landforms and ocean floors

(D) Major climatic changes in the world

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

(1) (A) and (B) only

(2) (B) and (D) only

(3) (C) and (D) only

(4) (A) and (D) only

86 / 100

Q.86. Which of the following vegetation species do not pertain to Tropical Thorn Forests?

(A) Nirmali

(B) Kheira

(C) Tendu

(D) Haldu

(E) Babul

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) and (B) only

(2) (C) and (D) only

(3) (A) and (E) only

(4) (B) and (C) only

87 / 100

Q.87. Match List I with List II

List I

(Social Movement)

(A) Save Silent valley

(B) Chipko

(C) Narmada Bachao

(D) Jungle Bachau

List II

(State of Origin)

(I) Jharkhand

(II) Gujarat

(III) Uttarakhand

(IV) Kerala

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

             (A)       (B)       (C)       (D)

(1)        I           II         III        IV

(2)        II         III        IV        I

(3)        III        IV        I           II

(4)        IV        III        II         I

88 / 100

Q.88. The term peneplane denotes to

(A) A level surface formed in the old age of a fluvial cycle

(B) A level surface formed by wind erosion

(C) A level surface formed by marine ernsions

(D) A level surface formed by meeting of floodplain

(E) A level surface formed as an end product of erosion

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) and (E) only

(2) (B) and (C) only

(3) (B) and (D) only

(4) (A) and (D) only

89 / 100

Q.89. Arrange the four Indian oceanic relief features in order of their location from north to south direction

(A) Laccadive-Chagos ridge

(B) Chagos-Saint Paul ridge

(C) Amsterdam-St. Paul Plateau

(D) Korgelen - Gaussberg ridge

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (D), (C), (B), (A)

(2) (C), (B), (A), (D)

 (3) (A), (B), (C), (D)

(4) (B), (C), (A), (D)

90 / 100

Q.90. According to Koppen's climatic classification ‘Amw’ climate is found in

(1) Assam

(2) Goa

(3) Punjab

(4) Arunachal Pradesh

91 / 100

Read the following passage carefully and answer the question given below (91-95)

Climate change involves both internal and external factors. External one includes solar variability, astronomical effects on the earth's orbit and volcanic activity whereas internal one includes natural variability in the system, feedbacks within atmosphere. ocean and land surface. Recently, human induced climate change on global and local scale has become a reality, primarily through changes in atmospheric composition and surface properties. Climate changes involve continental drift, volcanic activity and solar output. Glacial interglacial cycles have been controlled by astronomical variations. The global temperature has increased by 0.5 C with greatest in the middle latitudes with warming particularly during the 1920 to 1940s and 1990s with several warmest years. Long-term changes are ascribed to astronomical forcings, while short-term changes linked to anthropogenic factors causing changes in atmospheric composition, including aerosol loading. depletion of ozone, destruction of vegetation etc. Recently, climate change predictions with GCMs are under taken for next 100 years depending on emission scenarios for greenhouse gases and aerosols the mean global temperature may increase in the range of 1.4 to 5.8°C. together with sea level rise. To conclude, critical research data on cloud cover, radiation, ocean processes atmospheric coupling and feedback processes in the context of climate change are required.

Q.91. Which of the following activities do not accentuate short-term changes in atmospheric composition?

(1) Aerosol loading

(2) Astronomical forcing

(3) Loss of flora

(4) Depletion of ozone

92 / 100

Q.92. Which of the following elements is not associated with climate change?

(1) Solar variability

(2) Upwelling interactions

(3) Volcanic eruptions.

(4) Astronomical periodicities

93 / 100

Q.93. Which one of the following rates of increase have been observed in global temperature in recent times?

(1) 1.0°C

(2) 1.4 °C

(3) 0.5°C

(4) 5.8°C

94 / 100

Q.94. Which one of the following will be mean global temperature increase range till the year 2100?

(1) 0.1 – 2.0°C

(2) 1.5 – 4.8°C

(3) 1.4 – 5.8 °C

(4) 2.0 – 3.0 °C

95 / 100

Q.95. Which of the following conditions is essential for future research with respect to climate change?

(1) Hychological modelling

(2) Runoff modelling

(3) Computer modelling

(4) Atmospheric modelling

96 / 100

Read the following passage carefully and answer the question given below  (96-100)

Population Geography, a sub field of Geography, studies spatial variations in distribution. composition, migration and growth of population to the terrain, in a way it involves demography in geographic perspective.

If focuses on questions such as where populations are found and how the size and composition of these populations in regulated by demographic processes of fertility. mortality and migration contributions to population geography are cross-disciplinary Disciplines other than geography contributing to population geography inchide demography, sociology and economics.

Since its inception, population geography has taken at least three distinct forms. The earliest emerging in the 1960s, focused on the systematic study of population distribution as a whole and spatial variations in dynamic characteristics of population. Trewartha. Zelinsky, WAV Clark and other from USA and J.B Garnier and Pierre George in France Pioneered this phase.

Population geography has widered its acope to cover different variety of themes with time. It studies various population characteristics including gender, religion age, disability racrete by grouping population characteristics into political and administrative units. All such variables go far beyond the vital statistics of births, deaths and marriage /migrations.

Geographers have studied relations between demographic growth, displacement and access to resources at the International scale. Examples are density mape prepared using choropleth, isoline and dots.

Q.96. Which one of the following vital statistics is related with demographic characteristics of population studied in Population Geography

(1) Age and sex

(2) Religious composition and race

(3) Birth, deaths, marriage/migration

(4) Literacy and workforce

97 / 100

Q.97. Which one of the following population characteristics does not belong to vital statistics?

(1) Births

(2) Deaths

(3) Age and sex

(4) Marriage /migration

98 / 100

Q.98. Who among the following is not a U.S. Geographer pioneering population geography as a part of spatial science?

(1) GT Trewartha

(2) Pierre George

(3) Wilbur Zelinsky

 (4) W.A.V. Clark

99 / 100

Q.99. Which one of the following group of disciplines, other than geography, has contributed significantly to studies in population geography?

(1) Psychology, Anthropology and History

(2) Anthropology, Statistics and Sociology

(3) Sociology, Demography and Economics

(4) Economies, Sociology and History

100 / 100

Q.100. In which of the following decades. Population Geography greatly focused on the systematic study of distributions and spatial differentiations in various attributes of population characteristics

(1) 1950s

(2) 1960s

(3) 1980s

(4) 1990s

Your score is

The average score is 66%

0%

 

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SHIFT 1 & SHIFT 2 PAPERS DEC 2020 JUNE 2021

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