DEC 2019 PAPER 1 NTA UGC NET SOLVED PAPER

DEC 2019 PAPER 1 CBSE UGC NET OFFICIAL PAPER

KEYWORDS: DEC 2019  PAPER 1 SOLVED PAPER UGC NET, NTA UGC NET PAPER  SOLVED PAPER, UGC NET SOLVED PAPER 1, CBSE UGC NET SOLVED OLD PAPER 1,DEC 2019   PAPER 1 UGC NET, PAPER 1 UGC NET, NTA UGC NET PAPER 1,DEC 2019 SOLVED PAPER,

So, This is the official Questions Paper and Answer Key for the paper 1 conducted on DEC 2019 , taken from official website

Note: This paper contains (50) multiple choice questions, each questions carrying two (2) marks. Attempt all of them.

(PDF) For download pdf file of question paper go to the bottom of this post.

Q.1. In the two sets given below, Set I provides levels of teaching while Set II gives their focus of concern:

Set I (Levels of Teaching)	Set II (Focus of concern)
(a) Autonomous development level	(i) Problem raising and problem solving
(b) Memory Level	(ii) Affects and feelings
(c) Understanding level	(iii) Recall of facts and informations
(d) Reflective level	(iv) Seeing of relationship among facts and their examples
	(v) Peer learning

Select correct answer from the options given below:

1. (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (v)
2. (a) – (i), (b) – (iv), (c) – (iii), (d) – (ii)
3. (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
4. (a) – (v), (b) – (iv), (c) – (iii), (d) – (ii)

Ans- 3

Q.2. In which type of qualitative research designs, individual stories to describe the lives of people are explored?

1. Ethnography
2. Grounded theory research
3. Symbolic interaction
4. Narrative research

Ans- 4

Q.3. Micro expression, as part of classroom communication, are

1. Negative
2. Positive
3. Manipulative
4. Fleeting

Ans- 4

Q.4. Pitch of the teacher’s voice in the classroom is described as

1. Linguistic
2. Paralinguistic
3. Non- linguistic
4. Macro-linguistic

Ans- 2

Q.5. From the list of learning outcomes indicated below, identify those which are said to be high level outcomes:

(a) Learning of facts and rules

(b) Showing the ability to analyse and synthesize

(c) Awareness, responding and valuing

(d) Imitation, manipulation, and precision

(e) Articulation and naturalization

(f) Organization and characterization

Select correct answer from the options given below:

1. (b), (e) and (f)
2. (a), (b) and (c)
3. (b), (c) and (d)
4. (a), (c) and (f)

Ans- 1

Q.6. Apoorav is son of Madhu. Vinod is borther of Madhu’s husband. How is Apoorav related to Vinod?

1. Uncle
2. Brother
3. Nephew
4. Cousin

Ans- 3

Q.7. Which of the following are essential for good classroom communication?

(a) Over-emphasis on certain words

(b) Use of gobbledygook

(c) Proper employment of redundancy

(d) Immediacy of feedback

(e) Non-verbal cues

(f) Sidelining student criticism

Choose the correct option from the following:

1. (a), (b) and (c)
2. (b), (c) and (f)
3. (c), (d) and (e)
4. (d), (e) and (f)

Ans- 1

Q.8. The distinction between laukika and alaukia is made with reference to which one of the following pramanas?

1. Anumana (Inference)
2. Upamana (Comparison)
3. Pratyaksa (Perception)
4. Sabda (Verbal testimony)

Ans- 3

Q.9. Match the two sets given below in which Set I mentions levels of measurement and Set II their properties:

Set I (Levels of measurement)	Set II (Properties)
(a) Nominal	(i) Classification, order, equal units and absolute zero
(b) Ordinal	(ii) Classification, order and equal units
(c) Interval	(iii) Classification
(d) Ratio	(iv) Classification and order

Select correct answer from the options given below:

1. (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iii), (d) – (iv)
2. (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
3. (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iv)
4. (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)

Ans- 4

Q.10. The next term in the series

AT, EQ, IN, OK, ……. is

1. UH
2. UP
3. US
4. UU

Ans- 1

Q.11. In which of the following sampling methods employed in research, the units comprising the sample are given equal and independent chance?

1. Stage sampling
2. Cluster sampling
3. Dimensional sampling
4. Snowball sampling

Ans- 2

Q.12. The ratio of two numbers a and b is 3:7. After adding 9 to each number, the ratio becomes 9:17. The number a and b are:

1. (6, 14)
2. (9, 21)
3. (15, 35)
4. (18, 42)

Ans- 4

Q.13. ‘Some students are sincere’ is an example of which preposition?

1. Universal Affirmative
2. Universal Negation
3. Particular Affirmative
4. Particular Negation

Ans- 3

Q.14. Which of the following research is cyclic in nature?

1. Fundamental research
2. Applied research
3. Action research
4. Evaluating research

Ans- 3

Q.15. Given below are two statements – one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): If a teacher wants to improve his or her abilities as an effective classroom communicator, he or she should first understand the students.

Reasons (R): The ability to understand students and intended listening are disjointed propositions.

In the light of the above two statements, choose the correct option from the following:

1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is true, but (R) is false
4. (A) is false, but (R) is true

Ans- 3

Q.16.  ‘ All students cleared their examination’ and ‘Few students did not clear their examination’.

This is an instance of …………

1. Contradictories
2. Superaltern
3. Subaltern
4. Contraries

Ans- 1

Q.17. “Everyone is going to the party. You should go too.” This inference commits which kind of fallacy?

1. Ad populum
2. Equivocation
3. Ad Verecundiam
4. Ad Ignorantiam

Ans- 1

Q.18. Identify the tests from the list given below, which are maximum performance tests in the context of research:

(a) Personality tests

(b) Projective personality tests

(c) Achievement tests

(d) Attitude tests

(e) Intelligence tests

(f) Aptitude tests

Choose correct answer from the options given below:

1. (a), (b) and (c)
2. (b), (c) and (e)
3. (c), (e) and (f)
4. (a), (d) and (f)

Ans- 3

Q.19. This issue of research ethics becomes relevant in which of the following stages of research?

(a) Problem selection

(b) Hypothesis formulation

(c) Hypothesis testing

(d) Data analysis and interpretation

(e) Defining of research population

Select correct answer from the following options:

1. (a) and (b)
2. (c) and (d)
3. (b) and (e)
4. (c) and (e)

Ans- 2

Q.20. Mini-summaries at the end of each is called

1. Verbal break – up
2. Cliched conclusion
3. Verbal signposting
4. Staggered conclusion

Ans- 3

Q.21 In aa certain code “ENGLAND” is written as “ULSNYLV”. Using the same code, “IRELAND” wi be written as

1. HQUNYLV
2. QHUNYLV
3. QUHNYLV
4. HUQNYLV

Ans- 2

Q.22. Product of two consecutive integers is divisible by 2. Therefore 4 × 5 (=20) is divisible by 2.  This is an example of which type of Reasoning?

1. Abductive
2. Information
3. Inductive
4. Deductive

Ans- 4

Q.23. What is the missing term in the series given below?

2, 4, 6, 12, 10, 36, 14,    ?    , 18, 324,……

1. 50
2. 72
3. 108
4. 18

Ans- 3

Q.24. In the context of Classroom teaching, the foundation on which a warm and nurturing relationship with learners can be built is called:

1. Probing
2. Teacher Affect
3. Structuring
4. Feedback

Ans- 2

Q.25. Which one of the following sequences correctly reflects the evolution of educational technology support in higher education?

1. Programmed learning materials, text book support, online and moduler material
2. Text book supplementation, programmed learning material, modular material and online methods
3. Modular material, programmed learning, online and text book supplementation
4. Online methods, modular material, text-book supplementation and programmed learning material

Ans- 2

Comprehension

Q.No. 26-30

The following table gives the percentage of marks obtained by five students in five subjects. Maximum marks in each subject are given in the parenthesis below the subject name.

Students	Percentage (%) Marks obtained
	Maths (100)	Chemistry (150)	Physics (150)	English (100)	Physical Education (100)
A	90	80	95	80	90
B	80	75	90	70	80
C	100	95	95	85	95
D	75	70	60	65	60
E	60	50	65	50	70

Q.26. The aggregate percentage of marks obtained by C are:

1. 92.20%
2. 94.17 %
3. 95.21%
4. 91.17%

Ans- 2

Q.27. What is the difference between aggregate marks obtained by A and C?

1. 40.5
2. 41.5
3. 42.5
4. 43.5

Ans- 3

Q.28. The aggregate of marks obtained by E is:

1. 252.5
2. 251.5
3. 353.5
4. 352.5

Ans- 4

Q.29. What is the average percentage of marks obtained by the students in chemistry?

1. 74 %
2. 79%
3. 89%
4. 81%

Ans- 1

Q.30. In which subject, the studt have obtained lowest average (%) percentage of marks?

1. Chemistry
2. Physics
3. English
4. Physical education

Ans- 3

Q.31. From the following, identify the organisation that provides a common platform to Ll Universities including institutions of national importance?

1. University Grants Commission
2. Association of Indian Universities
3. Distance Education Council
4. Indian Institute of Advanced Study

Ans- 2

Q.32. Creation of world-class Universities requires:

(i) Autonomous governance

(ii) Focused funding

(iii) Control over evaluation mechanism

(iv) Independent outcomes

(v) Appointment of staff by the State Machinery

Select correct answer from the option given below:

1. (i), (ii) and (v)
2. (ii), (iii) and (v)
3. (iii), (iv) and (v)
4. (i), (ii) and (iv)

Ans- 4

Q.33. Given below are two statements – one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): The internet is a collection of interconnected computer networks, linked by transmission medium such as copper wires, fiber-optic cables, wireless connection etc.

Reasons (R): World Wide Web is a collection of interconnected documents.

In the right of the above two statements, choose the correct answer:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Ans- 2

Q.34. Average noise levels in heavy traffic zones in major cities in India are generally in which of the following ranges of noise levels?

1. (1) 31 – 40 dBA
2. (2) 41 – 50 dBA
3. (3) 70 – 95 dBA
4. (4) 110 – 120 dBA

Ans- 3

Q.35. The Montreal Protocol refers to

(1) Cooperation among UN member countries to combat climate change

(2) Phasing out the consumption and production of ozone depleting substances

(3) Ensuring environmental sustainability

(4) Safeguarding societal quality of life worldwide

Ans- 2

Q.36. Which description is appropriate among the following for ‘E-Governance’?

(1) To engage, enable and empower the citizens

(2) To provide fair and unbiased services to the citizens

(3) To provide technology driven governance

(4) To ensure people’s faith in E-commerce applications

Ans- 4

Q.37. Which of the following is a programming language?

(1) Deep learning

(2) Machine learning

(3) Artificial Intelligence

(4) Python

Ans- 4

Q.38. Match the following two sets. Set I lists the name of states, while Set II indicates state specific missions.

Set I	Set II
(a) Andhra Pradesh	(i) Mukhya Mantri Jal Swavalamban Abhiyan
(b) Gujarat	(ii) Jalyukti Shivar Abhiyan
(c) Maharashtra	(iii) Neeti Samrakshana Udyamam
(d) Rajasthan	(iv) Sujalam Sufalam Jal Abhiyan

Select correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iii), (d) – (iv)

(2) (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)

(3) (a) – (ii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii)

(4) (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)

Ans- 4

Q.39. Which of the following is a search engine?

(1) Internet

(2) Bing

(3) Skype

(4) Acrobat Reader

Ans- 2

Q.40. Which of the following modes of admission was prevalent in Nalanda University in ancient times?

(1) Entrance Examination

(2) Interview

(3) Good Academic Credentials

(4) Peer Discussion

Ans- 1

Q.41. In which category International Airport has been conferred, the UN’s Champion of the Earth Award?

(1) Policy Leadership

(2) Entrepreneurial Vision

(3) Science and Innovation

(4) Inspiration and Action

Ans- 2

Q.42. Identify the Sustainable Development Goals from the list given below:

(i) Zero Hunger

(ii) Quality Education

(iii) Universal Primary Education

(iv) Clean Water and Sanitation

(v) Green Agriculture

(vi) Climate Action

Select correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(2) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)

(3) (iii), (iv), (v) and (i)

(4) (i), (ii), (iv) and (vi)

Ans- 4

Q.43. Which of the following emphasized that education needs to be managed is an atmosphere of utmost intellectual rigour, seriousness of purpose and of freedom essential for innovation and creativity?

(1) National Policy on Education – 1968

(2) National Policy on Education – 1986

(3) NITI Aayog – Three Year Action Agenda (2017-18 to 2019-20)

(4) Draft National Education Policy- 2019

Ans- 2

Q.44. Match List I with List II.

List I	List II
(a) WWW	(i) Volatile memory
(b) JAVA	(ii) Non-volatile memory
(c) RAM	(iii) World Wide Web
(d) ROM	(iv) Programming language

Choose the correct option from the following:

(1) (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iii), (d) – (iv)

(2) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)

(3) (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)

(4) (a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)

Ans- 3

Q.45. What are the current challenges in the field of higher education in India?

(i) Expansion

(ii) Equity

(iii) Funds

(iv) Examination Reforms

(v) Excellence

(vi) Entrance Examination

Select correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (i), (ii) and (vi)

(2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(3) (iii), (iv) and (vi)

(4) (i), (ii) and (v)

Ans- 4

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 46-50.

Intra-industry trade arises in order to take advantage of important economies of scale in production. That is, International competition forces each firm or plant in industrial countries to produce only one, or at most a few, varieties and styles of the same product rather than many different varieties and styles. This is crucial in keeping unit costs low. With few varieties and styles, more specialised and faster machinery can be developed for a continuous operation and a longer production run. The nation then imports other varieties and styles from other nations. Intra-industry trade benefits consumers because of the wider range of choice, i.e., the greater variety of differentiated products, available at the lower prices made possible by economies of scale in production. Because of this, large welfare gains arise from the ability of consumers to greatly increase the variety of goods that they can purchase through trade. The importance of intra-industry trade became apparent when tariffs and other obstructions to the flow of trade among members of the European Union, or common market were removed in1958. It was found that volume of trade surged but most of the increase involved the exchange of differentiated products within each broad industrial classification.

Q.46. The impact of international competition on intra-industry trade can be seen in

(1) the available of wide varieties of products

(2) the limited varieties of the same product

(3) adverse effects on industrial production

(4) restrictive advantage of production

Ans- 2

Q.47. Mass production of a few varieties of products will result in

(1) low cost of unit

(2) advantage to industrial economies of scale

(3) benefits to the customers of important economies

(4) increased cost of production

Ans- 1

Q.48. Development and use of specialised machinery will lead to

(1) more varieties of products

(2) decrease consumer welfare

(3) import of varieties of products

(4) hindered intra-industry trade

Ans- 1

Q.49. Lower product price means

(1) continued production run

(2) absence of choice

(3) increase in trade information exchange

(4) increased consumer purchasing power

Ans- 4

Q.50. What was the consequences of removal of barriers to the flow of trade in European Union?

(1) Sluggish intra-industry trade

(2) Flow of uniform products

(3) Spurt in trade volume among member states

(4) Emphasis on differentiated products

Ans- 3

 

PDF Download Link: DEC 2019 Paper 1