# DEC 2020 JUNE 2021 SHIFT- 1 PAPER 1 NTA UGC NET SOLVED PAPER

DEC 2020 JUNE 2021 SHIFT- 1 PAPER 1 NTA UGC NET OFFICIAL PAPER

KEYWORDS: DEC 2020 JUNE 2021 SHIFT- 1   PAPER 1 SOLVED PAPER UGC NET, NTA UGC NET PAPER  SOLVED PAPER, UGC NET SOLVED PAPER 1, CBSE UGC NET SOLVED OLD PAPER 1,DEC 2020 JUNE 2021 SHIFT- 1  PAPER 1 UGC NET, PAPER 1 UGC NET, NTA UGC NET PAPER 1,DEC 2020 JUNE 2021 SHIFT- 1 SOLVED PAPER,

So, This is the official Questions Paper and Answer Key for the paper 1 conducted on JAN 2022  , taken from official website

Note: This paper contains (50) multiple choice questions, each questions carrying two (2) marks. Attempt all of them.

(PDF) For download pdf file of question paper go to the bottom of this post.

Consider the following table which contains number of corona test conducted in each hospital within bracket and number of positive cases in a city on a particular day. Based on the data in the table answer question. (1-5)

Q.1.Which city reported highest number of positive cases?

(1) City 2

(2) City 1

(3) City 14

(4) City 3

Q.2. What is the ratio of positive cases in City 1 and City 3?

(1) 9 : 4

(2) 6 : 5

(3) 9 : 5

(4) 11 : 4

Q.3. Which hospital reported maximum number of positive cases?

(1) Hospital A

(2) Hospital D

(3) Hospital B

(4) Hospital C

Q.4. What is the percentage of positive cases in City 4?

(1) 16

(2) 13

(3) 14

(4) 15

Q.5. What is the percentage of negative cases?

(1) 16.90

(2) 16.10

(3) 15.66

(4) 16.67

Q.6. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Aquatic weeds are fast growing weeds which cats attain very high productivities when cultivated on nutrient rich waste water such as domestic sewage

Statement II: Water hyacinth, salvinia and duck weed are some examples of aquatic woods.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(8) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Q.7. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In Nyaya philosophy, subject matter of logic is mainly thought and its verbal formulation is only a matter of contingency,

Statement II: Verbal formulation of an argument in Nyaya tradition is only for leading the other to the conclusion in question.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer given below:

(1) Both Statement 1 and Statement II are correct

(2) Both Statement 1 and Statement II are incorrect

(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(4) Statement is incorrect hut Statement II is correct

Q.8. Kritika is making her science project presentation on Friction using a presentation software. She wants to add the phrase ‘Presentation on Friction’ at the bottom of each page. Which option should she use?

(1) Project

(2) Bullets

(4) Footer

Q.9. “Of course you want to buy a Golden pear brand phone. Golden pear phones look good in one’s hand and all the Bollywood stars can be seen carrying them these days”:

Which fallacy is committed in the above argument?

(1) Red herring

(2) Fallacy of accident

(3) Appeal to force

(4) Appeal to people (Argumentum ad Populam)

Q.10. CAE stands for

(1) Calculation Arithmetic Equation

(2) Calculation Aided Estimate

(3) Computer Aided Engineering

(4) Critical Assessment for Energy

Q.11. Which of the following are NOT the characteristics of adult learners?

(A) They are matured learners

(B) They can act rationally

(C) They search for a reasonably stable identity

(D) They can make balanced choice

(E) Often question contemporary values

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) and (B) only

(2) (A) and (D) only

(3) (C) and (E) only

(4) (C) and (D) only

Q.12. Match List I with List II

List I

Hazardous substance

(B) PCB (Polychlorinated biphenyls)

(C) Benzene

(D) Vinyl Chloride

List II

Major Source

(I) Electrical insulation

(II) Plastics industrial uses

(III) Paint

(IV) Gasoline

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A)       (B)       (C)       (D)

(A)       I           II         III        IV

(B)       II         III        IV        I

(C)       III        I           II         IV

(D)       III        I           IV        II

Q.13. Which among the following adversely affects the inclusive character of the institutions of higher education?

(1) To promote quality of education

(2) To select very competent faculty

(3) To use uniform criterion to select the institutions so that charges of partiality can be

avoided

(4) To provide fund for doing quality research

Q.14. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Communication is viewed as one of the social factors that influence the society including educational institutions.

Statement II: Communication does not help develop, maintain and change cultural settings of any society for that matter.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement 1 and Statement II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(3) Statement is correct but Statement. It is incorrect

(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Q.15. The type of evaluation which gives feed-back to students as well as teachers is:

(1) Placement evaluation

(2) Formative evaluation

(3) Summative evaluation

(4) Diagnostic evaluation

Q.16. A student greets his teacher with ‘Good Morning’. Here the channel of communication is:

(1) The effect

(2) The source

(3) The speech

(4) The intent

Q.17. The sequence of stages of active listening is

(A) Understanding

(B) Remembering

(C) Responding

(D) Receiving

(E) Evaluating

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B), (C), (E), (D)

(2) (C), (A), (D), (B), (E)

(3) (D), (A), (E), (B), (C)

(4) (B), (C), (E), (D), (A)

Q.18. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The 4 quadrants of SWAYAM are (1) Video lecture (2) specially prepared reading materials that can be downloaded (3) online discussion forum for clarifying doubts (4) Time to time assessment by experts

Statement II: Swayam Prabha is a group of 34 DTH channels denoted to telecast high quality educational programmes on 24 × 7 basis.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(8) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Q.19. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): Research in the field of sciences require more fund than that in the field of social sciences and humanities.

Reasons (R): Only in economically rich countries research in sciences of high quality is possible.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Q.20. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Hardware represents the physical and tangible parts of the computer.

Statement II: Operating system is tailor made software according to user’s requirements.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(8) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Q.21. The dimensions of classroom communication are:

(A) Level of obscurity

(B) Level of Observation

(C) Level of intrusion

(D) Intentionality

(E) Normative judgement

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B), (C) only

(2) (B), (C), (D) only

(3) (C), (D), (E) only

(4) (B), (D), (E) only

Q.22. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Data base refers to a collection of logically related data

Statement II: The purpose of assembly language is to bring man and computer together

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(8) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Q.23. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: A Systematic review can be described as a replicable and scientific process.

Statement II: A transparent review may help us in minimizing personal and other biases.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(8) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Q.24. Which of the following are true about International Solar Alliance (ISA)?

(A) Its Head Quarter is in Washington DC

(B) It is a joint initiative of France and India

(C) Most of the participating countries are in southern hemisphere

(D) There are 121 signatory countries

(E) Mostly sunshine countries are participants in this

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B), (D) and (E) only

(2) (B), (D) and (E) only

(3) (A), (B), (C) only

(4) (B). (C), (D) and (E) only

Q.25. Match List I with List II

List I

Organisations

(A) ICSSR

(B) DST

(C) ICMB

(D) ICPR

List II

Disciplinary Domain

(I) Philosophy

(II) Social Sciences

(III) Sciences

(IV) Medicine

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(A)       (B)       (C)       (D)

(A)       IV        II         I           III

(B)       I           IV        III        II

(C)       III        I           II         IV

(D)       II         III        IV        I

Q.26. Match List I with List II:

List I

Types of speech

(A) After dinner speech

(C) Marketing speech

(D) Political speech

List II

Objective

(II) To impress

(III) To amuse not necessarily informative

(IV) To inform

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A)       (B)       (C)       (D)

(A)       III        IV        II         I

(B)       IV        I           III        II

(C)       II         III        IV        I

(D)       III        IV        I           II

Q.27. Gopal can do a piece of work in 3 days while Ravi can do the same work in 4 days. The wage for the full work is Rs. 3500/. If they both work together to complete the work then find the earnings of Ravi?

(1) 1300

(2)1500

(3)1600

(4) 1650

Q.28. Match List I with List II:

List I

Factors influencing learning

(A) Psychological

(B) Socio-Cultural

(C) Institution

(D) Teaching-learning

List II

Illustration

(1) Methods of teaching

(II) Faculty relationship

(III) Intelligence

(V) Family

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A)       (B)       (C)       (D)

(A)       III        IV        I           II

(B)       IV        III        I           II

(C)       II         III        I           IV

(D)       III        IV        II         I

Q.29. Which among the following factors promote the quality of education?

(A) Organizing conferences, symposia

(B) Encouraging collaboration of research with the leading universities of the World

(C) By privatising the universities

(D) By creating a system of strong punishment for those faculty who do not do research

(E) Providing e-resources to the faculty and students

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B), (E) only

(2) (A), (B), (C) only

(3) (B), (C), (E) only

(4) (C), (D), (E) only

Q.30. Given below are two statements

Statement I: Purpose of doing research is to make fundamental contribution in knowledge

Statement II: Indian higher education institutions are making fundamental contributions in very large area of knowledge by publishing a number of research articles.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(3) Statement is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(4) Statement is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Q.31. What is the rate of simple interest in a bank if the principal amount of Rs. 5,000,00 becomes Rs. 10,000,00 in 8 years?

(1) 12.5%

(2) 20%

(3) 15%

(4) 10%

Q.32. India’s share of nuclear energy in the electricity generation is approximately

(1) 0.3%

(2) 3%

(3) 10%

(4) 15%

Q.33. The least number of five digits which is exactly divisible by 12, 15 and 18 is:

(1) 10020

(2) 10050

(3) 10060

(4) 10080

Q.34. Match List I with List II in order to make correct sentences

List I

(A) Fraction equivalent of 128.57% is (nearest)

(B) If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 20% and its denominator is decreased by 10%, the fraction becomes 16/21. The original fraction is

(C) 1*1/7 is equal to

(D) 2/7 + 64/56 is equal to

List II

(I) 9/7

(II) 8/7

(III) 10/7

(IV) 4/7

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A)       (B)       (C)       (D)

(A)       IV        I           II         III

(B)       IV        III        II         I

(C)       III        II         IV        I

(D)       I           IV        II         III

Q.35. Match List I with List II

List I

Variables

(A) Independent

(B) Dependent

(C) Control

(D) Discrete

List II

Characteristic features

(I) Can be used to divide subjects into specific categories

(II) Cannot be divided into subparts

(III) Represents the cause

(IV) The variable that is affected

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A)       (B)       (C)       (D)

(A)       I           II         III        IV

(B)       II         III        IV        I

(C)       III        IV        I           II

(D)       IV        I           II         III

Q.36. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Vyapti relation of Universal concomitance) expresses the relation

two individual objents only.

Statement II: Vyapti expresses the relation between the classes of individuals.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement 1 and Statement. II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(3) Statement is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(4) Statement is incorrect but Statement. II is correct

Q.37. By what name this validity is known for where an assessment of the measurement validity of a measure that compares it to another measure of the same concept that has been generated from a different method?

(1) Predictive validity

(2) Construct validity

(3) Concurrent validity

(4) Convergent validity

Q.38. What is the purpose of Block Chain?

(1) To block the network

(2) To block the data

(3) To secure the data

Q.39. The probability of not accepting the null hypothesis when the alternative hypothesis is acceptable is called

(1) Rejection range

(2) Demarcation

(3) Normative incidence

(4) Power

Q.40. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Equilateral triangles and squares are examples of regular polygons

Statement II: In isosceles triangles, the angles opposite to the equal sides are equal.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(3) Statement is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Q.41. Match Last I with List II:

List I

E-Waste Components

(A) Mercury

(B) Poly Chlorinated Biphenyls (PCB)

(C) Brominated Flame Retardants

(D) Poly Vinyl Chloride (PVC)

List II

Their uses

(I) Printed Circuit Board

(II) Insulation

(III) Flat Screen monitors

(IV) Capacitors and Transformers

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A)       (B)       (C)       (D)

(A)       I           III        IV        II

(B)       I           II         III        IV

(C)       III        IV        II         I

(D)       III        IV        I           II

Q.42. A series of terms would be in the order of increasing intension:

(A) When each terms in the series (except the first) connotes more attributes then the ones preceding it.

(B) When each term in the series (except the first) is more specific than the one preceding it.

(C) When each in the series (except the first) connote less attributes than the one preceding it.

(D) When them in the series (except the first) in less specific than the one preceding it.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (C) and (D) only

(2) (C) only

(3) (A) and (B) only

(4) (D) only

Q.43. Which of the following are sources of verbal data?

(A) Traffic signals

(B) Semi structured interviews

(C) Narrative interviews

(D) Focus groups

(E) Body language

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B), (C) only

(3) (B), (C), (D) only

(3) (C), (D), (E) only

(4) (A), (D), (E) only

Q.44. The level of teaching which demands the use of higher order thinking skills in

(1) Memory level teaching

(2) Understanding level teaching

(3) Reflective level teaching

(4) Creativity level teaching

Q.45. “The great cricketer Sudhir says that Medisulpha soaps are good for health. We therefore must believe that it must be true indeed.”

Which fallacy is committed in the above argument?

(1) Strawman

(2) Appeal to unqualified authority

(3)  Appeal to ignorance

(4) Slippery slope

Let us look at what you can do to eliminate a destructive habit, whether it is obesity. habitually being late, profanity, smoking, having a short temper or alcoholism. The first and foremost thing you must do is to decide that you want to eliminate the habit. That is a decision you and only you can make Without this motivation on your part, no person or procedure will have any significant impact. If someone else “talks you into it the chances are string you will perhaps start but the effort will be short lived. Remember, you generally don’t reach someone else’s goal. Many times you end up further behind than you would have been had you not attempted to quit a habit which you were not ready to give up. For example, weight lost and regained. So first and most importantly, decide you no longer are going to be a slave to any destructive habit. Decide you want to have control of your life, that you want to be free that you want to do things with your life instead of having things done to your life. It is tougher, much tougher to quit a bad habit, but fortunately the results are fun and much more rewarding. Former smokers, alcoholics and fat-folks unanimously and in glowing terms – give us exhaustive details concerning the joy and excitement of shedding those pounds, giving up the need, and getting of the bottle. The ex-smoker talks about the exciting taste of the food the clean smell of the air, clothes, furniture, among others. The talk about the new found self-respect and satisfaction from whipping a habit that would have taken from two to ten years of their lives, and a lot of living out of their lives

Q.46. The elimination of destructive habits depends upon

(1) External persuasion

(2) Social acceptance

(3) Impersonal reasons

(4) Self-resolve

Q.47. The impact of someone else motivating a person to move away from a bad habit is:

(1) Everlasting

(2) None

(3) Transient

(4) Significant

Q.48. Fending off bad habits will earn a person:

(A) Self-respect

(B) Better friends in the society

(C) Satisfaction in life

(4) New opportunities

Choose the correct option:

(1) (A) and (C) only

(2) (B) and (C) only

(3) (C) (D) only

(4) (A) and (D) only

(1) Unacceptability of destructive habits

(2) Benefits of giving up destructive habits

(3) Moral Values

(4) Prevalence at had habits in the society

Q.50. A person who decides to leave a bad habit is (a):

(1) Successful person

(2) Susceptible to pressure forms others

(3)  Role model for others

(4) In control of his own life