WBSET 2017 PAPER 3 GEOGRAPHY SOLVED PAPER OFFICIAL 

WBSET 2017 PAPER 3 GEOGRAPHY SOLVED PAPER OFFICIAL 

KEYWORDS: WBSET 2017 PAPER 3 GEOGRAPHY SOLVED PAPER WBSET, WB SET PAPER 3 GEOGRAPHY SOLVED PAPER, WBSET SOLVED PAPER 3 GEOGRAPHY , SET SOLVED OLD PAPER 3, WBSET 2017  PAPER 3 GEOGRAPHY , PAPER 3 GEOGRAPHY WBSET, WB SET PAPER 3,WBSET 2017  SOLVED PAPER 3,

So, This is the official Questions Paper and Answer Key for the paper 3 conducted on 2017  , taken from official website

Note: This paper contains (75) multiple choice questions, each questions carrying two (2) marks. Attempt all of them.

(PDF) For download pdf file of question paper go to the bottom of this post.

Q.1. Postmodernism

  1. is against metanarratives
  2. is anti-foundational
  3. believes in “essences’
  4. rejects truth

Which of the above characteristics postmodernism correctly?

Codes:

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2

(C) 1, 2 and 3

(D) 1, 2 and 4

Answer: D

Explanation:

 

Q.2. Which of the following scholar had established the ‘Heliocentric concept of the Universe?

(A) Varenius

(B) Nicholas Copernicus

(C) Immanuel Kant

(D) Humboldt

Answer: B

Explanation:

 

Q.3. Who amongst the following scholars first declared that the earth is spherical?

(A) Aristotle

(B) S. Munster

(C) Kant

(D) Anaximander

Answer: A

Explanation:

 

Q.4. Who is the author of Geographia?

(A) Eratosthenes

(B) Ptolemy

(C) Strabo

(D) Varenius

Answer: B

Explanation:

 

Q.5. Mechanistic models were developed in which of the following phases of Geography?

(A) Post Behavioural Geography

(B) Radical Geography

(C) Quantitative Geography

(D) Neo-deterministic Geography

Answer: C

Explanation:

 

Q.6. Which of the following characteristics would fall in the Brazilian type of Population-Resource Region as identified by Ackerman?

(A) Technology source areas Population Resource Ratio. with high

(B) Technology deficient areas with low Population Resource Ratio.

(C) Technology deficient areas with high Population Resource Ratio.

(D) Technology source areas with low Population-Resource Ratio.

Answer: B

Explanation:

 

Q.7. The major sources of population data are:

Choose from the following:

  1. The Census and Vital Statistics
  2. Sample Registration System
  3. Demographic Sample Surveys and Population Registers
  4. Demographic Year Book

Codes:

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 1 and 3

(C) 1 and 4

(D) All of the above

Answer: D

Explanation:

 

Q.8. Which one is the most densely populated area in India?

(A) Lower Ganga Plain

(B) Kerala Coastal Plain

(C) Assam Valley

(D) Utkal Plain

Answer: A

Explanation:

 

Q.9. Which of the following description about earthquakes is correct?

(A) The Richter Scale is used to show the intensity of an earthquake.

(B) The point under the Earth’s Surface where fracturing begins is the earthquake’s epicentre.

(C) All earthquake occur along the plate boundary.

(D) Most deep-focus earthquakes are found along the destructive plate margin.

Answer: B

Explanation:

 

Q.10. A long, narrow and winding deposit of stratified drift describes

(A) a drumlin

(B) an esker

(C) a kame

(D) an outwash plain

Answer: B

Explanation:

 

Q.11. Arrange the following concepts in order in which they appeared. Use the code given below:

  1. Principle of uniformitarianism
  2. Theory of continental drift
  3. Dynamic equilibrium theory
  4. Theory of convection current

Codes:

(A) a, c, d, b

(B) b, a, d,c

(C) d, a, b, c

(D) a, b, d, c

Answer: D

Explanation:

 

Q.12. The magnitude-frequency concept in tectonic induced landslide states that there is generally

(A) a positive relationship between the magnitude of an event and its frequency.

(B) a inverse relationship between the magnitude of an event and its frequency.

(C) anull relationship between the magnitude of an event and its frequency.

(D) None of the above

Answer: B

Explanation:

 

Q,13. Assertion (A): Flood becomes the most destructive of natural hazards in Ganga-Brahmaputra valley.

Reason (R): Due to more and more people are living in flood hazard prone areas.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (4).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false,

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: A

Explanation:

 

Q.14. Which of the following significantly weakened the strength of Mackinder’s geopolitical heartland theory?

(A) Ascendance of the United State’s international influence after the World War II.

(B) Existence of a pivot area.

(C) Growth of Soviet power in eastern Europe.

(D) Influence of Eurasia in world affairs.

Answer: A

Explanation:

 

Q.15. Erosion can be seen as a sequence of three processes: (Choose the best alternative).

(A) Detachment, entrainment and transport which cannot be distinguished from each other.

(B) Detachment, entrainment and transport which can be distinguished from each other.

(C) These three processes are often closely related and sometimes not easy to distinguished between each other.

(D) None of the above

Answer: C

Explanation:

 

Q.16. A type of mechanical weathering that requires daily freeze-thaw conditions to break rock into angular fragments is

(A) Exfoliation

(B) Frost action

(C) Spheroidal weathering

(D) Frost heaving

Answer: B

Explanation:

 

Q.17. Sea floor spreading implies that

(A) the ocean basins are getting thinner.

(B) with increasing distance from the ridges, the rocks are younger.

(C) the oceans of the planet are getting thicker.

(D) new crustal material is being formed.

Answer: D

Explanation:

 

Q.18. Which one of the following is not a characteristic feature at source region of cP airmass?

(A) Cold and dry

(B) Very stable

(C) Very little cloud cover

(D) Very unstable

Answer: D

Explanation:

 

Q.19. Which one of the following is incorrectly matched with reference to the dates of the NLM?

(A) Hyderabad – June, 05

(B) Bhubaneswar – June, 10

(C) Jodhpur July, 01

(D) Guwahati – June, 10

Answer: D

Explanation:

 

Q.20. As per the recent assessment of cyclone vulnerability of Indian coastal districts by IMD the most vulnerable districts are located in which one of the following coastal states?

(A) Tamil Nadu

(B) Kerala

(C) Karnataka

(D) Odisha

Answer: D

Explanation:

 

Q.21. Population growth in India was quite low before 1921 because

(A) birth rate was lower than that at present.

(B) death rate was higher than that at present.

(C) death rate was lower than that at present.

(D) birth rate was higher than that at present.

Answer: B

Explanation:

 

Q.22. Which among the following has the highest physiological density?

(A) Japan

(B) Bangladesh

(C) Egypt

(D) China

Answer: A

Explanation:

 

Q.23. Going by the patterns of Total Fertility Rate (TFR) observed at the beginning of the 21st century, which statement among the following is correct?

(A) 2-1-2-5 considered as replacement level.

(B) China and the USA recorded less than 2.1 TFR.

(C) India had higher TFR compared to Pakistan.

(D) Africa had the concentration of the highest TFR countries.

Answer: C

Explanation:

 

Q.24. If a population grows at the annual rate of 1:0 per cent, after how many years it would be double?

(A) 80 years

(B) 75 years

(C) 70 years

(D) 60 years

Answer: C

Explanation:

 

Q.25. Sjoberg model has to do with

(A) Pre-industrial City

(B) Industrial City

(C) Post-industrial City

(D) Post-modern City

Answer: A

Explanation:

 

Q.26. Which of the following is not among the main aspects of rural settlement?

(A) Site

(B) Form

(C) Situation

(D) Distribution

Answer: C

Explanation:

 

Q.27. The law of primacy in urban hierarchy was first identified by

(A) F. Averbach

(B) Mark Jefferson

(C) Brian. J. L. Berry

(D) G. K. Zipf

Answer: B

Explanation:

 

Q.28. Exburnites are

(A) inhabitants who previously used to live in urban areas but have since left the town.

(B) those urban people who are constantly changing their residence.

(C) the commuters beyond the continuous urban built up area.

(D) inhabitants of suburbs.

Answer: C

Explanation:

 

Q.29. Which identified resource among the following is going to last the longest?

(A) Bauxite

(B) Iron Ore

(C) Nickel

(D) Mercury

Answer: A

Explanation:

 

Q.30. The First Green Revolution’s ingredients were

  1. HYV seeds
  2. Agrochemicals
  3. Single cropping system
  4. Modern farm machinery
  5. Proper irrigation system

Which of the above are correct answers?

(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(B) 2, 3, 4 and 5

(C) 1, 2, 4 and 5

(D) 1, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: C

Explanation:

 

Q.31. All the following are true of truck farming except

(A) among the most common truck crops are tomatoes, strawberries and lettuce.

(B) most often it is characterized by the use of mechanized farming tools.

(C) labour costs are often relatively high on these large scale farming operations.

(D) it is the predominant agricultural practice found in the south-eastern United States.

Answer: C

Explanation:

 

Q.32. Industries which are considered “footloose”

(A) are fly-by night operations.

(B) are found in predominantly agricultural areas.

(C) are not affected by transportation cost.

(D) require multiple sources of raw materials.

Answer: C

Explanation:

 

Q.33. SEZ policy was announced in India in the year

(A) 1965

(B) 2000

(C) 2005

(D) 2007

Answer: B

Explanation:

 

Q.34. Sea level rise will produce a significant threat to the cities of India situated in the coastal plain in the following sequence

(A) Kolkata – Mumbai – Chennai

(B) Bhubaneswar – Cuttack – Vijayvada

(C) Thiruvanantapuram – Belagavi – Baroda

(D) Rajahamundri – Bhadrak – Thanjavur

Answer: A

Explanation:

 

Q.35. Which of the following mode of transport is highly elastic?

(A) Airways

(B) Railways

(C) Roadways

(D) Waterways

Answer: C

Explanation:

 

Q.36. The Concept of nation is

  1. Foundational
  2. Anti-foundational
  3. Production of nationalism
  4. Clearly spatial

 

Which of the above are true?

(A) 1 and 3

(B) 2 and 3

(C) 1, 3 and 4

(D) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: C

Explanation:

 

Q.37. The Kurds present an example of

(A) Binational State

(B) Multinational State

(C) Part-nation State

(D) Stateless nation

Answer: D

Explanation:

 

Q.38. Select the correct sequence of the lengths of the international borders with India in decreasing order:

(A) Pakistan, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Nepal

(B) Pakistan, Myanmar, Bangladesh, Nepal

(C) Bangladesh, Pakistan, Nepal, Myanmar

(D) Nepal, Bangladesh, Pakistan, Myanmar

Answer: C

Explanation:

 

Q.39. Which of the following states international boundary with three countries?

(A) Uttarakhand

(B) Uttar Pradesh

(C) Arunachal Pradesh

(D) Tripura

Answer: C

Explanation:

 

Q.40. Which of the following is not among the new challenges to the geopolitics concept?

(A) Non-State organisations

(B) Internalisation

(C) Globalisation

(D) Trans-boundary issues

Answer: B

Explanation:

 

Q.41. Bengali language is associated with which language family?

(A) Dravidian language family

(B) Indo-Aryan language family

(C) Austroasiatic language family

(D) Sino-Tibetan language family

Answer: B

Explanation:

 

Q.42. Match the following:

LIST-I

  1. Awadhi      
  2. Maithili       
  3. Dogri          
  4. Adi           
  5. Khortha      

LIS-II

  1. Arunachal Pradesh
  2. Himachal Pradesh and Jammu & Kashmir

iii. Jharkhand and Bihar

  1. Bihar
  2. Uttar Pradesh

Codes: 

Answer: A

Explanation:

 

Q.43. Most of the people of the middle-east belongs to which of the following racial group of people?

(A) Caucasoid

(B) Mongoloid

(C) Alpine

(D) Mediterranean

Answer: D

Explanation:

 

Q.44. Which among the following is not considered as a racial trait?

(A) Physical trait

(B) Ancestry

(C) Genetics

(D) Literary

Answer: D

Explanation:

 

Q.45. Concentric Zone model includes the following zones within a city:

  1. Wholesale and light manufacturing zone
  2. Commuter zone
  3. Central business district
  4. High class residential zone

Arrange these zones in correct sequence starting from the core of the city by using codes given below:

(A) 1, 3, 4, 2

(B) 3, 1, 4, 2

(С) 3, 1, 2, 4

(D) 2, 3, 1, 4

Answer: B

Explanation:

 

Q.46. The Town and Country Planning Organisation was set up in India in 1962 with the merger of which of the following institutes:

(A) Town and Country Planning Organisation and Reserve Bank of India

(B) Town and Country Planning Organisation and Ministry of Urban Development

(C) Town and Country Planning Organisation and Ministry of Urban Affairs

(D) Town and Country Planning Organisation and Central Regional and Urban Planning Organization

Answer: D

Explanation:

 

Q.47. In the hierarchy of planning, the regional planning will come at which of the following levels?

(A) Above the national planning

(B) Between national planning and local planning

(C) Below the local planning

(D) Imperative planning

Answer: B

Explanation:

 

Q.48. Administrative regions are generally accepted as planning regions because

(A) it provides for regional hierarchy.

(B) it is a formal region.

(C) plan formulation and implementation need administrative machinery.

(D) both (A) and (B).

Answer: D

Explanation:

 

Q.49. Which of the following regionalisation helps in systematically examining the problems like poverty, hunger, outmigration, cultural deprivation, under development and malnutrition?

(A) Political region

(B) Population region

(C) Economic region

(D) Natural Resource Region

Answer: C

Explanation:

 

Q.50. Geometric Corrections of digital images at pre-processing stage is done by

(A) systematic and non-systematic distortion correction

(B) resampling

(C) polynomial mapping

(D) All of the above

Answer: D

Explanation:

 

Q.51. Which one of the following is the first remote sensing satellite in the world?

(A) Landsat

(B) Spot

(C) Aryavatta

(D) Corona

Answer: D

Explanation:

 

Q.52. Assertion (A): The whole world cannot be shown in Polar Zenithal Sterographic Projection.

Reason (R): The source of light in this perspective projection lies in the opposite Pole of the developable surface.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: A

Explanation:

 

Q.53. Find the odd match out:

(A) Bodo-Assam

(B) Monpa-Arunachal Pradesh

(C) Munda-Madhya Pradesh

(D) Tharu-Uttar Pradesh

Answer: C

Explanation:

 

Q.54. Which one of the following district does not have a large concentration of tribal population?

(A) Bastar

(B) Ranchi

(C) Murshidabad

(D) Jhabua

Answer: C

Explanation:

 

Q.55. The Mahanadi River water dispute involves

  1. Madhya Pradesh
  2. Jharkhand
  3. Chhattisgarh
  4. Odisha

 

Which of the above are correct?

(A) 1 and 4

(B) 2 and 4

(C) 3 and 4

(D) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: C

Explanation:

 

Q.56. Meaning of “threshold” in Loschian theory of industrial location is

(A) source of availing cheap labour

(B) source of raw material

(C) minimum market needed to sell goods or services

(D) market of ancillary requirements

Answer: C

Explanation:

 

Q.57. Match the following:

List-I (Transport System/ Models)  

  1. Transport network in developing countries      
  2. Spatial Exploration Model          
  3. Mercantile Model 
  4. Hybrid Transport System

 

List-II (Propounder)

  1. Taaffe
  2. Gould
  3. Vance
  4. Rimmer

Codes:

 

a

b

c

d

(A)

1

2

3

4

(B)

2

3

4

1

(C)

4

2

3

1

(D)

2

3

1

4

 

Answer: A

Explanation:

 

Q.58. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I (Quadrant)     

  1. II    
  2. I     
  3. III   
  4. IV  

Codes:

List-II (Reduced Bearing)

  1. S (180°-θ) E
  2. N (360°- θ) W
  3. S (180°- θ) W
  4. NθE

Codes:

 

a

b

c

d

(A)

2

1

3

4

(B)

2

3

4

1

(C)

1

4

3

2

(D)

1

3

4

2

 

Answer: C

Explanation:

 

Q.59. Which of the following statements is true regarding manufacturing industries?

(A) Manufacturing industries can only help in agriculture.

(B) Manufacturing industries create unemployment.

(C) Manufacturing industries provide employment not only in agriculture but for secondary and tertiary sectors.

(D) Manufacturing industries reduce our dependency on agriculture.

Answer: D

Explanation:

 

Q.60. 

The shaded area in the above diagram is

(A) loss

(B) the maximum loss

(C) profit

(D) the maximum profit

Answer: D

Explanation:

 

Q.61. Hurricane or Typhoons is an example of

(A) Wave cyclone

(B) Tropical cyclone

(C) Tornado

(D) Temperate cyclone

Answer: B

Explanation:

 

Q.62. Assertion (A) : Roaring Forties are strong Westerly winds found in the Southern Hemisphere, generally between the latitudes of 40°s to 50°s.

Reason: The strong east to west air currents are caused by the combination of air being displaced from the Equator towards the South Pole and the Earth’s rotation and there are few land masses to serve as wind breaks.

 

(A) Both (4) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: A

Explanation:

 

Q.63. The Sargasso Sea is a vast patch of the Atlantic Ocean named for a free floating sea weed called Sargassum. This is formed due to

  1. deposit of the marine plants and refuge by the North Atlantic current.
  2. deposit of the marine plants and refuge by the Canary current
  3. deposit of the marine plants and refuge by the North Atlantic Equatorial current.
  4. deposit of the marine plants and refuges by the Gulf Stream.

 

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) 1, 2, 4

(B) 2, 3, 4

(C) 1,2,3

(D) 1, 3, 4

Answer: C

Explanation:

 

Q.64. In the seas surrounding the Antarctica you would expect

(A) the surface water to be more saline than the deep water

(B) the surface water to be more dense than the deep water.

(C) the surface water to be less dense than the deep water.

(D) the surface water to be cooler than the deep water.

Answer: C

Explanation:

 

Q.65. Global sea level changes are taking place mainly due to

(A) thermal expansion of the sea water

(B) increased precipitation

(C) melting of high altitude glacier

(D) relative subsidence of land margins

Answer: A

Explanation:

 

Q.66. The Peru or Humboldt current is

(A) a warm current

(B) a cold current

(C) a counter current

(D) a long shore current

Answer: B

Explanation:

 

Q.67. The belt of sea adjoining the coast over which a coastal state exercises its sovereignty is called:

(A) Internal water

(B) Baseline

(C) Continental shelf

(D) Territorial water

Answer: D

Explanation:

 

Q.68. The Mariana trench is the deepest part of the World’s Oceans.

Which one of the following statements about the Mariana trench is not correct?

(A) It is located in the Western Pacific Ocean, to the west of Mariana Island.

(B) The trench was first sounded during the Challenger Expedition in 1875.

(C) The trench is about 2550km long and an average width of only 69km.

(D) At the bottom of the trench the water column above exerts a pressure over 1000 times the standard atmospheric pressure at sea level.

Answer: A

Explanation:

 

Q.69. The endangered Olive Ridley Turtle has the world’s largest congregation at

(A) Sagarmatha

(B) Gahirmatha

(C) Lakshadweep Islands

(D) Andaman Coast

Answer: B

Explanation:

 

Q.70. Choose the correct sequence in the decreasing order of mean net primary productivity (dry gram/m²/ yr) from the following:

(A) Temperate grassland, Boreal forest, Tropical forest, Temperate forest

(B) Temperate forest, Temperate grassland, Boreal forest, Tropical forest

(C) Tropical forest, Temperate forest, Boreal forest, Temperate grassland

(D) Boreal forest, Temperate forest, Temperate grassland, Tropical forest

Answer: C

Explanation:

 

Q.71. Which one of the following is called an incomplete cycle?

(A) Nitrogen cycle

(B) Oxygen cycle

(C) Phosphorus cycle

(D) Carbon cycle

Answer: C

Explanation:

 

Q.72. The most harmful of ultraviolet radiations is

(A) UV-C

(B) UV-B

(C) UV-A

(D) UV-X

Answer: A

Explanation:

 

Q.73. Which of the following causes the greatest number of extinction of species?

(A) Competition with introduced species

(B) Commercial hunting

(C) Pollution

(D) Habitat alteration

Answer: D

Explanation:

 

Q.74. A farmer in a semi-arid area claims that his farming practice is very environment friendly. Which of the following practices on his farm can justify his claim?

  1. Planting a tree belt
  2. Practising crop rotation
  3. Carrying out a large scale irrigation system
  4. Using organic fertilizers

Select the correct answer using the codes given

(A) 3 and 4

(B) 1, 2 and 4

(C) 1, 3 and 4

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

Explanation:

 

Q.75. Who among the following has influenced thoughts of Arne Naess associated with the philosophy and movement deep ecology”?

(A) Karl Marx

(B) B. R. Ambedkar

(C) M. K. Gandhi

(D) J. L. Nehru

Answer: C

Explanation:

 

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