So, This is the official Questions Paper and Answer Key for the paper 2 conducted on 2022, taken from official website

Note: This paper contains (100) multiple choice questions, each questions carrying two (2) marks. Attempt all of them.

(PDF) For download pdf file of question paper go to the bottom of this post.



Q.1. What percentage of data of a normal distribution approximately lies between (+) and (-) one standard deviation?

(A) 66

(B) 46

(C) 33

(D) 23

Answer: A


Q.2. Clustering of rural settlements in an area can be determined by using:

(A) Nearest Neighbour Analysis

(B) Christaller’s Central Place Theory

(C) Cluster Analysis

(D) Rank-size Rule

Answer: A


Q.3. Which among the following is not a stage of social development as per Comte’s proposition?

(A) Theological

(B) Metaphysical

(C) Positive

(D) Postmodern

Answer: D


Q.4. E. Bylund’s theory has to do with which of the following aspects of rural settlement?

(A) Expansion

(B) Morphology

(C) Planning

(D) Ecology

Answer: A


Q.5. If variability of rainfall is to be measured, which of the following techniques will be used?

(A) Coefficient of Correlation

(B) Coefficient of Regression

(C) Coefficient of Variation

(D) Coefficient of Multiple Correlation

Answer: C


Q.6. What are the underlying characteristics of WTO?

(A) It facilitates economic co-operation between different countries.

(B) It acts as an umbrella institution that regulates agreements concluded in the Uruguay round for promotion of free international trade.

(C) It helps in development of the less developed countries.

(D) It resolves disputes among world trade blocks.

Answer: B


Q.7. p-value ≤0.05 indicates:

(A) a strong evidence against null hypothesis

(B) a weak evidence against null hypothesis

(C) a strong evidence against alternative hypothesis

(D) a weak evidence against alternative hypothesis

Answer: A


Q.8. Which among the following locational factors is most important in the case of ‘footloose industries’?

(A) Capital

(B) Raw material

(C) Market

(D) Labour

Answer: C


Q.9. Concept of ‘Locational Triangle’ for the location of industries was introduced by which of the following scholars?

(A) Lösch

(B) Palander

(C) Weber

(D) Smith

Answer: C



Q.10. The orbital altitude of a GPS navigation satellite is

(A) 10,200 km

(B) 15,200 km

(C) 20,200 km

(D) 36,200 km

Answer: C


Q.11. Which of the following organisations prepares Indian Topographical maps?


(B) Survey of India

(C) TTK, Madras

(D) Ministry of Defence, GOI

Answer: B


Q.12. Select the correctly sequenced landform features in a glaciated valley from to lower altitudes.

(A) Tarn, Paternoster lake. Kettle lake. Moraine-dammed lake

(B) Tarn, Paternoster lake, Moraine-dammed lake, Kettle lake

(C) Paternoster lake, Tarn, Moraine-dammed lake, Kettle lake

(D) Kettle lake, Tarn, Paternoster lake, Moraine-dammed

Answer: B


Q.13. In a standard FCC, vegetation appears red because:

(A) Red band is shown in green.

(B) Green band is shown in red.

(C) Defence-related restrictions prevent disclosure of actual colours.

(D) NIR band is shown in red.

Answer: D


Q.14. What is the spatial resolution of A WiFS sensor?

(A) 23-5 m

(B) 36 m

(C) 56 m

(D) 188 m

 Answer: C


Q.15. Assertion (A): The Indus and the Zangbo rivers follow a long distance parallel to the Himalayas before crossing the mountain.

Reason (R): The rivers have the weakest part of the Himalayas at its syntaxial bends to cross the mountain.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false. (D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer: A


Q.16. The Universal Transverse Mercator zone number of West Bengal is:

(A) 43

(B) 44

(C) 45

(D) 46

Answer: C


Q.17. The river Cauvery flows through the states of:

(A) Kerala, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu

(B) Goa, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu

(C) Telangana, Tamil Nadu, and Karnataka

(D) Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu

Answer: A


Q.18. Assertion (A): ITCZ moves northward during summer in the northern hemisphere.

Reason (R): Low pressure system is developed over the continental landmass.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

 Answer: B


Q.19. Which of the following is not among the basic factors in E. L. Ullman’s transport systems model?

(A) Complimentarity

(B) Intervening opportunities

(C) Transferability

(D) Distance between two points

Answer: D


 Q.20. Name the forest in which teak and sal are the most dominant species:

(A) Tropical Evergreen Forest

(B) Tropical Deciduous Forest

(C) Boreal Forest

(D) Temperate Forest

Answer: B


Q.21. Plants behaving as xerophyte at one season and as hydrophyte at another are known as:

(A) Epiphytes

(B) Saprophytes

(C) Tropophytes

(D) Heliotropophytes

Answer: D


Q.22. In satellite images, radiometric resolution is related to:

(A) Number of grey values

(B) Number of spectral values

(C) Number of bands

(D) Number of colour values

Answer: A


Q.23. Which of the following coastal areas is known A for mining of ‘Rare Earth’?

(A) Maharastra coast

(B) Karnataka coast

(C) Andhra coast

(D) Odisha coast

Answer: D


Q.24. Geographically the most extensive fogs in India during winter are mainly:

 (A) Radiation fogs

 (B) Advective fogs

 (C) Frontal fogs

 (D) Hill fogs

 Answer: A


Q.25. The process of a primary autotrophic succession is completed in which of the following correct sequential steps?

(A) Invasion →→ Nudation →→ Reaction → Competition →→→ Stabilisation

(B) Nudation →→→ Invasion →→ Competition →→ Reaction →→Stabilisation

(C) Competition Reaction →→ Invasion → Stabilisation →→→ Nudation

(D) Reaction →→→ Invasion →→ Nudation →→ Competition →→ Stabilisation

Answer: B



Q.26. In an El Nino year, the Western Pacific warm pool moves towards the east and this modifies the:

(A) Hadley Circulation

(B) Walker Circulation

(C) Ferrel Circulation

(D) Langmuir Circulation

Answer: B


Q.27. Tertiary period had five epochs. Select the correct order in which these epochs appear in the Geological time scale from ancient to recent.

(A) Paleocene – Oligocene – Miocene – Eocene – Pliocene

(B) Paleocene – Pliocene – Oligocene – Miocene – Eocene

(C) Paleocene – Eocene – Oligocene – Miocene – Pliocene

(D) Oligocene – Paleocene – Miocene – Eocene – Pliocene

Answer: C



Q.28. Which of the following countries is not included among the ten members of ASEAN?

(A) Brunei Darussalam

(B) Papua New Guinea

(C) Vietnam

(D) Phillippines

 Answer: B


Q.29. Match the geomorphic features with the geomorphic processes.

Geomorphic feature

(a) Cockpit

(b) Moulin

(c) Runnel

(d) Talik

Geomorphic process

(i) Coastal process

(ii) Fluvial process

(iii) Glacial process

(iv) Karstic process

(v) Periglacial process


            (a)        (b)       (c)        (d)

(A)       iv         iii         i           ii

(B)       v          i           ii          iv

(C)       iv         iii         i           ii

(D)       iv         v          iii         i

Answer: A


Q.30. Match List-I with List-II


(a) x² test

(b) Coefficient of Variation

(c) t-test

(d) Rank correlation


(i) consistency of the variables

(ii) test of significance

(iii) skewed distribution

(iv) sample size less than


            (a)        (b)       (c)        (d)

(A)       i           ii          iii         iv

(B)       iv         i           ii          iii

(C)       ii          iii         i           iv

(D)       ii          iv         iii         i

Answer: B


Q.31. The term ‘ecumene’ is applied to mean:

(A) The areas temporarily settled by people.

(B) The permanently inhabited areas of the earth’s surface.

(C) The uninhabited areas of the world.

(D) The areas deserted by people.

 Answer: B


 Q.32. Match List-I with List-II

List-1 (Climatic type)

(a) Tropical Monsoon

(b) Mediterranean

(c) Tropical Hot Desert

(d) Arctic

List-II (Symbol after Köppen)

(i) Csa/Csb

(ii) Am

(iii) ET/EF

(iv) Bwh


            (a)        (b)       (c)        (d)

(A)       i           ii          iii         iv

(B)       ii          iii         iv         i

(C)       iv         ii          i           iii

(D)       ii          i           iv         iii

 Answer:  D


Q.33. Cultivation of fuel wood with crop is known as:

(A) Viticulture

(B) Silviculture

(C) Arboriculture

(D) Pomuculture

Answer: C


Q.34. Zero population growth occurs in a country when:

(A) births plus immigration equal deaths plus emigration

(B) births are equal to deaths

(C) in-migration is equal to out-migration

(D) in-migration is equal to deaths

 Answer: A


Q.35. Who among the following took the first leadership to spread Quantitative Techniques in Geography outside USA?

(A) H. McCarty

(B) T. Hägerstrand

(C) W. Bunge

(D) J. Q. Stewart

Answer: B


Q.36. Among the following values of hypsometric integral, which one denotes maximum erosion of a drainage basin area down to its base level?

(A) 0.18

(B) 0-44

(C) 0-51

(D) 0-91

Answer: A


Q.37. Consider the following statements: ‘Water spout’ is a weather element associated with,

(1) A tornado

(2) Intense low pressure system similar to a tornado but develops over sea / large water-body.

(3) A cumulonimbus cloud-base with whirling cone of dark grey cloud projected downward.

Which of the above statements are correct as given below?

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 1 and 3

(C) 2 and 3

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D


Q.38. Pelagic oozes cover about:

(A) 30% of the world ocean floor area

(B) 40% of the world ocean floor area

(C) 50% of the world ocean floor area

(D) 60% of the world ocean floor area

Answer: C


Q.39. Assertion (A): Flood is the most destructive of natural hazards in the Ganga-Brahmaputra plains.

Reason (R): Due to population pressure, more people tend to live in flood prone areas.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false but (R) is correct

 Answer: A


Q.40. Inclusive growth is the agenda of economic development in the future, but the strategy of inclusive growth does not focus on:

(A) promotion of ancillary industry in industrial regions

(B) of poverty among backward castes

(C) diversification of for tribal population

(D) enhancement of educational opportunities

Answer: A


Q.41. The great sociologist who held the view that “education doesn’t bring about social change; rather the social change results into an educational change” was:

(A) McDougal

(B) Aristotle

(C) Durkheim

(D) Dewey

Answer: C


Q.42. Social development process is primarily directed towards one among the following, identify it.

(A) Removal of poverty and hunger

(B) Economic growth with distributive justice

(C) Integrated women and child development

(D) Integrated rural development

Answer: B


Q.43. What would be the correct pattern of nesting of central places in the marketing principle under Christaller’s Central Place Theory?

(A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5…

(B) 1, 3, 6, 9, 12…

(C) 1, 3, 6, 12, 24…

(D) 1, 3, 9, 27, 81…

Answer: D


Q.44. Which of the following statements best describes the movement along a normal fault?

(A) Hanging wall moves downward relative to the foot wall.

(B) Hanging wall moves horizontal relative to the foot wall.

(C) Hanging wall moves angular relative to the foot wall.

(D) Hanging wall moves upward relative to the foot wall.

Answer: A


Q.45. Water waves are termed ‘shallow’ when:

(A) Water depth is less than 1/20 th of wavelength

(B) Water depth is less than 1/10 th of wavelength

(C) Water depth is less than 1/5 th of

(D) Wave depth is less than ¼ th of wavelength

Answer: A


Q.46. First nuclear energy plant in India was established in:

(A) Narora

(B) Tarapur

(C) Kaiga

(D) Kalpakkam

Answer: B


Q.47. Wider dispersion can best be represented

(A) Standard Deviation

(B) Fractiles

(C) Factorial Ecology

(D) Coefficient of Variation

Answer: B


Q.48. The following are the possible causes for monsoon delay in India:

(1) El Nino. (2) Tibetan anticyclone, (3) Presence of Westerly Jet Stream south of the Himalaya during summer, (4) Shifting of ITCZ

(A) 1 and 3 are true

(B) 2 and 4 are true

(C) 1, 2 and 3 are true

(D) 1 and 4 are true

Answer: A


Q.49. Which one of the following is a correct match?

Tribal Population (in %)

(a) High

(b) Medium

(c) Low

(d) Very Low


(i) Odisha

(ii) Punjab

(iii) West Bengal

(iv) Manipur


            (a)        (b)       (c)        (d)

(A)       iv         i           ii          iii

(B)       iv         i           iii         ii

(C)       iv         ii          i           iii

(D)       iv         i           ii          iii

 Answer: B


Q.50. Who heads the National Commission on Population in India?

(A) President

(B) Prime Minister

(C) Chief Justice of Supreme Court

(D) Registrar General of India

Answer: B


Q.51. The relationship among power structure, the environment and economic inequalities is termed as:

(A) Political Ecology

(B) Gerrymandering

(C) Equality opportunity

(D) Authoritative biopower

 Answer: A


Q.52. Which one of the following landforms is not associated with wind erosion?

(A) Zeugen

(B) Yardang

(C) Mesa

(D) Seif

Answer: D


Q.53. Potential density of seawater is primarily dependent on:

(A) Salinity and Temperature

(B) Depth of water

(C) Mixing of warm and cold currents at a given locality

(D) Pressure of air and water columns

Answer: A


Q.54. ‘Doppler Radar’ is used for the purpose of:

(A) Extended range weather forecasting

(B) Medium range weather forecasting

(C) Long range weather forecasting

(D) Nowcasting

Answer: D


Q.55. Shape and spread of statistical data under univariate analysis is better judged through:

(A) Central Tendency

(B) Deviation Measures

(C) Hypothesis Testing

(D) Skewness and Kurtosis

Answer: D



Q.56. As per Kuhn’s model of disciplinary development, the first ‘Paradigm Phase’ is immediately preceded by which phase?

(A) Pre-paradigm

(B) Crisis

(C) Professionalisation

(D) Revolution

Answer: C


Q.57. Assertion (A): Humboldt rejected the idiographic paradigm in favour of establishing the unity of nature.

Reason (R): Humboldt considered regions merely as tools to study the unity of diversity and unity of nature at a convenient scale.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.


Answer: A


Q.58. According to Visaria and Visaria (1996):

Assertion (A): India will face severe crisis of water during 2050.

Reason (R): The crisis may easily be managed with the judicious use of water in agricultural and industrial field.

(A) (A) is true but (R) is not the proper reasoning of (A)

(B) (A) is true and (R) is the proper reasoning of (A)

(C) (A) is conditionally true and (R) is the most effective reasoning to the problem of (A)

(D) Both (A) and (R) is false

Answer: C


Q.59. Given below are an Assertion (A) and a Reason (R). Find out the correct answer from the given codes:

Assertion (A): Urban agglomerations and million plus cities in India are growing very rapidly.

Reason (R): Small and satellite towns are not developed in a planned way to reduce the growth of the big cities.

(A) (A) is true but (R) is not correct.

(B) Both (R) and (A) are true but (R) is not the only cause of (A).

(C) (R) is true but (A) is not correct.

(D) Both (R) and (A) are true and (R) is the correct explanation for (A).

 Answer: B


Q.60. Which of the following group of rivers originates from the mountains of Himachal Pradesh?

(A) Beas, Ravi, and Chenab

(B) Ravi, Chenab, and Jhelum

(C) Satluj, Beas, and Ravi

(D) Chenab, Beas, and Jhelum

Answer: A


Q.61. Formation of potholes in river beds is an example of:

(A) Hydration

(B) Erosion

(C) Plucking

(D) Corrasion

Answer: D


Q.62. Which one of the following is suitable in understanding crop specialization as well as crop diversity?

(A) Crop Combination

(B) Cropping Intensity

(C) Cropping Efficiency

(D) Crop Yield

Answer: A


  1. If the basic-non-basic ratio is equal to 1 (one) in an urban unit, it indicates:

(A) Recession of economy

(B) Growth of economy

(C) Stagnation of economy

(D) High growth of economy

Answer: C

 Q.64. The flow analysis and gravitational analysis are two well-known methods for delineation of:

(A) Formal Region

(B) both Formal and Functional Region

(C) Functional Region

(D) Social Region

Answer: C


Q.65. Identify the correct statement with reference to the first phase of globalisation in the Nineteenth Century:

(A) London was the global, hegemonic centre of political-economic power.

(B) Wall Street dominated the economic areas.

(C) Washington DC was the centre of political power.

(D) There was an intricate connection between the eastern economies.

Answer: A


Q.66. Match the following:


(a) Krishna

(b) Satluj

(c) Mahanadi

(d) Bhagirathi



(i) Nagarjun Sagar

(ii) Tehri

(iii) Bhakhara Nagal

(iv) Hirakud


            (a)        (b)       (c)        (d)

(A)       i           iii         iv         ii

(B)       i           ii          iii         iv

(C)       ii          iii         i           iv

(D)       i           iii         ii          iv

Answer: A


Q.67. The origin of the conceptual interplay between “place-work-folk”, a key concept in social geography is found in the works of:

(A) Vidal de la Blache.

(B) Redfield and Singer

(C) Friedrich Ratzel.

(D) Frederic le Play

Answer: D


Q.68. In his theory of Social Ecology, Kropotkin developed the idea of social interaction within the social groups under the principle of:

(A) Exploitation

(B) Competetion

(C) Dominance

(D) Mutual aid

Answer: D


Q.69. Population potential of an area as an extension of social physics is propounded by:

(A) R. J. Chorley

(B) T. Hägerstrand

(C) B. Berry

(D) J. Q. Stewart

Answer: D


Q.70. Match the industries in column-1 with their location in column-II and mark the correct answer.


(a) Cotton textile

(b) Woollen textile

(c) Jute textile

(d) Silk textile


(i) Dhariwal

(ii) Rishra

(iii) Coimbatore

(iv) Mysore


            (a)        (b)       (c)        (d)

(A)       i           iii         iv         ii

(B)       ii          i           iii         iv

(C)       iv         ii          i           iii

(D)       iii         i           ii          iv

Answer: D

 Q.71. Who among the following proposed the multiple nuclei model of city growth?

(A) Harris and Ullmann

(B) Homer Hoyt

(C) E.W. Burgees

(D) Von Thünen

Answer: A


Q.72. In the Weberian Theory of industrial location, the term ‘agglomeration’ is best described by:

(A) concentration of people

(B) clustering of labour and raw materials

(C) clustering of productive activities and people for mutual advantage

(D) aggregation of market forces

 Answer: C


Q.73. The Great Andaman group of islands in the north is separated from the Nicobar group in the south by the:

(A) Five Degree Channel

(B) Eight Degree Channel

(C) Twelve Degree Channel

(D) Ten Degree Channel

Answer: D


Q.74. The cultural logic of late capitalism is often used to explain the nature of:

(A) Humanistic Geography

(B) Modernism

(C) Postmodernism

(D) Cultural Turn

 Answer: C


Q.75. The Beaufort scale is related to:

(A) Velocity of Winds

(B) Temperature

(C) Humidity

(D) Rainfall

Answer: A


Q.76. One needs to find out how much area is eroded or accreted in an administrative unit by a river using bankline polygons of different years in GIS. The procedure one would follow is called:

(A) Comparison analysis

(B) Overlay analysis

(C) Layer-level analysis

(D) Kriging analysis

 Answer: B


Q.77. Assertion (A): Coasts tend to become sandy to muddy as tidal range changes from micro to macro.

Reason (R): In tropical coasts, mangrove vegetation is conducive of deposition of fine sediments.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation.

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer: B


Q.78. Higher elevation of the mid oceanic ridge relative to the flanking sea-floor is best explained by:

(A) Pratt’s theory of isostasy

(B) Airy’s theory of isostasy

(C) Positive gravity anomaly

(D) Negative gravity anomaly

Answer: A


Q.79. Among the planation surfaces, the deep weathering process is best linked to:

(A) Peneplains

(B) Pediplains

(C) Panplains

(D) Etchplains

Answer: D


Q.80. Which of the following regions was proposed by John Friedman to explain the Core Periphery Model?

(A) Core Region and Upward Transition Region

(B) Downward Transition Region

(C) Resource Frontier Region

(D) It includes (A), (B) and (C)

 Answer: D


Q.81. Which among the following DEMs is available free from the Internet and is contributed by India?

(A) CartoDEM




Answer: A


Q.82. In which of the following weather conditions does the negative lapse rate of temperature operate?

(A) Adiabatic change in temperature

(B) Adiabatic inversion of temperature

(C) Surface inversion of temperature

(D) Isothermal change of temperature

 Answer: C


Q.83. Although, hydroelectric power has led to economic progress around the world, it has created serious ecologic problems.

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(A) To produce hydroelectric power, large areas of forest and agricultural lands are submerged.

(B) The silting of the reservoirs reduces the life of the hydroelectric power installations.

(C) The resettlement of displaced persons is generally not a serious issue as there are many options.

(D) The use of rivers for navigation and fisheries becomes difficult once the water is dammed to generate electricity.

Answer: C


Q.84. Which of the following is a marginal sea, in true sense, in the Indian Ocean?

(A) Red Sea

(B) Arabian Sea

(C) Bay of Bengal

(D) Andaman Sea

Answer: A


Q.85. ‘Ethnoburb’ is used to refer to residential patterns of Asian migrants to the cities of:

(A) Canada, New Zealand, UK and USA

(B) Australia, Canada, New Zealand and UK

(C) Australia, Canada, New Zealand and USA

(D) Australia, New Zealand, South Africa and USA

 Answer: C


Q.86. Which among the following features is a product of volcanic eruption?

(A) Lapilli

(B) Lapiés

(C) Laccolith

(D) Ladang

Answer: A


Q.87. Dendrochronology is useful to study the paleo climatic trends of which of the following epochs?

(A) Miocene

(B) Pliocene

(C) Pleistocene

(D) Holocene

Answer: D


Q.88. Which of the following can be considered as a direct impact of global warming?

(A) Increase in Green House Gases

(B) Coastal Erosion

(C) Coral Bleaching

(D) Volcanic Eruption

Answer: C


Q.89. UNCLOS stands for:

(A) United Nations Climate Law over Sea

(B) United Nations Convention on Law and Order of Sea

(C) United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea

(D) United Nations Convention on the Land over the Sea

Answer: C


Q.90. The following two lists state the temperature conditions and associated vegetation classes. Match the two lists.



(a) Megatherms

(b) Mesotherms

(c) Microtherms

(d) Hekistotherms


(Vegetation Types)

(i) Tropical Deciduous

(ii) Tropical Rainforest

(iii) Alpine

(iv) Mixed coniferous


            (a)        (b)       (c)        (d)

(A)       i           ii          iii         iv

(B)       ii          iv         i           iii

(C)       ii          i           iv         iii

(D)       iv         ii          iii         i

 Answer: C


Q.91. Consider the following statements

Blocking anticyclone is associated with: –

(1) Occurrence in both winter and months in NW Europe

(2) Prolonged cold dry season in Western Europe

(3) Frequent depressions with exceptionally fine weather in summer

Which of the statements are correct?

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 1 and 3

(C) 2 and 3

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D


Q.92. Assertion (A): In arid and semi-arid region sheet flood is an important land forming processes. Arid and semi-arid region

Reason (R): experience high intensity short duration rainfall.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer: A


Q.93. Which one of the following is the real characteristics of exurb?

(A) A low density, low population based settlement at suburbs

(B) A low density, low population based settlement beyond the suburbs

(C) A high density, low population based settlement at the outer core of urban unit

(D) A high density, high population based settlement beyond suburbs

Answer: B


Q.94. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?

(A) Tangsa: Tripura

(B) Adi : Arunachal Pradesh

(C) Meena: Rajasthan

(D) Munda: Jharkhand

 Answer: A


Q.95. In oceans, the Rule of Constant Proportions relates to:

(A) Benthic biota

(B) Tidal propagation in enclosed bays

(C) Salinity

(D) Oxygen isotope ratio

Answer: C


Q.96. In order of decreasing area of EEZS, which one of the following sequences is correct?

(A) USA, France, Russia, Australia

(B) France, USA. Australia, Russia

(C) Russia, Australia, USA, France

(D) USA, Australia, Russia, France

 Answer: B


Q.97. Maximum crop diversity is conventionally found in which of the following regions?

(A) Hilly Area

(B) Plain Area

(C) Plateau Area

(D) Peri-urban Area

Answer: D


Q.98. The temperature characteristics at a warm occluded front can be described as:

(A) The air behind the cold front is colder than the cool air it is overtaking.

(B) The air in front of the cold front is warmer than the cool air overtaking it.

(C) The air behind the cold front is warmer than the cool air it is overtaking.

(D) The air in front of the cold front is cooler than the cold air overtaking it.

 Answer: C


Q.99. At 25 °C air is saturated with 20 g of water vapour per kg of air. If the air contains 15 g of water vapour per kg at the same temperature the relative humidity is:

(A) 15%

(B) 30%

(C) 60%

(D) 75%

Answer: D


Q.100. Who proposed the term ‘Tricontinentalism’ in relation to Post-colonialism?

(A) Edward Said

(B) Homi Bhabha

(C) Gayatri Chakravorty.

(D) Robert Young

 Answer: D


PDF Download Link: WBSET PAPER 2 GEOGRAPHY 2022 

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