# DEC 2022 SHIFT 1 PAPER 1 NTA UGC NET OFFICIAL SOLVED PAPER

DEC 2022 SHIFT 1 PAPER 1 NTA UGC NET OFFICIAL SOLVED PAPER

PAPER 1 DEC 2022 SOLVED PAPER UGC NET, NTA UGC NET PAPER 1 SOLVED PAPER, UGC NET SOLVED PAPER 1 DEC 2022, CBSE UGC NET SOLVED OLD October Geography Paper 1,March 2023 PAPER 1 UGC NET, PAPER 1 UGC NET, NTA UGC NET PAPER 1,DEC 2022 NTA UGC NET PAPER 1 SOLVED PAPER,

So, This is the official Questions Paper and Answer Key for the paper 1 conducted on FEB 2023  , taken from official website NTA UGC NET

Note: This paper contains (50) multiple choice questions, each questions carrying two (2) marks. Attempt all of them.

(PDF) For download pdf file of question paper go to the bottom of this post.

Q.1. The following table shows the percentage (%) distribution of total number of employees, males and graduates of a company among six different departments A-F. The total number of employees of a company is 8000, in which the ratio of Male to Female is 3:5 and Graduate to Post-Graduate is 3:2. Based on the data in the table, answer the question.

Q.1. What is the number of employees working in department F who are Post-Graduate?

(1) 524

(2) 526

(3) 528

(4) 530

Q.2. What is the total number of male graduate employees Working in department D?

(1) 600

(2) 480

(3) 1280

(4) Cannot be computed

Q.3. What is the difference between the total number of female employees and the total number of male employees working in the company?

(1) 1000

(2) 2000

(3) 3000

(4) 4000

Q.4. The number of graduate employees working in department C is _____ %   % of the number of Post-Graduate employees working in department E.

(1) 260

(2) 180

(3) 160

(4) 120

Q.5. Total number of female employees in department F is _____ % more than the total number of male employees working in department A.

(1) 72

(2) 74

(3) 76

(4) 80

Q.6. Arrange the five steps of understanding level of teaching (according to Morrison) in the ascending sequence:

(A) Organisation

(B) Assimilation

(C) Presentation

(D) Recitation

(E) Exploration

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) E, C, B, A & D

(2) C, B, A, E & D

(3) A, C, D, B & E

(4) D, E, C, B & A

Q.7. In model of teaching ‘ADDIE’, the letters ‘D’, ‘D’ stand for:

(1) Design and Development

(2) Development and Deployment

(3) Design and Deployment

(4) Dedication and Development

Q.8. In learning, classical conditioning effects are an example of:

(1) Implicit Memory

(2) Eidetic Memory

(3) Retroactive Memory

(4) Explicit Memory

Q.9. Which of t are the vital elements of Pedagogical skills?

(A) Content knowledge

(B) Personality of the learners

(C) Students understanding of conceptions of the subject matter and learning

(D) Intelligence of the learners

(E) Teaching strategies

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A and E only

(2) C, D and E only

(3) A, B and D only

(4) A, C and E only

Q.10. SWAYAM platform facilitates hosting of all courses taught in classrooms:

(2) From Class 11th to Undergraduate level only

(4) From class 9th to Postgraduate

Q.11. The appropriateness, meaningfulness and usefulness of the specific inferences made from the measures, is called

(1) Parallel Test Reliability

(2) Interrater Reliability

(3) Test-Retest Reliability

(4) Validity

Q.12. In survey-based research in Social Sciences, when you decide to tell participants something false about the purpose of the research, you are using

(1) Active deception

(2) Dehoaxing

(3)  Naturalistic observation

(4)  Sensitization

Q.13. For testing difference in means of two independent samples with n1, and n2, the number of items in the two samples, respectively, the t-statistic is computed with the following degree of freedom

(1) n1 + n2 – 1

(2) n1 + n2 – 2

(3) n1 + n2

(4) n1 + n2 + 1

Q.14. In bibliographies and footnotes, researchers often use the abbreviation ‘ibid’., which means

(1) in the same place

(2) introduction

(3) and the following

(4) here and there

Q.15. Answers to which among the following questions can be found in the ‘Discussion’ section of a research paper?

(A) What kind of instrumentation was used in the study?

(B) How do your results relate to existing on the topic?

(C) What do the results mean?

(D) What were the results of any statistical tests?

(E) What new ideas emerge that you could evaluate in a subsequent experiment?

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A, B and C only

(2) B, C and D only

(3) B, C and E only

(4) C, D and E only

Q.16. From the communication viewpoint which one of the following is a cultural institution?

(2) Political parties

(3) Military alliances

(4) Family

Q.17. Which one of the following is excluded from the list of communication barriers?

(1) Physical

(2) Semantic

(3) Philosophical

(4) Psychological

Q.18. Which of the following are forms of traditional media of communication?

(A) Street demonstrations

(B) Yakshagana

(C) Puppetry

(D) Hari Katha

(E) Filmy dances

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A, B, C only

(2) B, C, D only

(3) C, D, E only

(4) A, D, E only

Q.19. Effective classroom communication is intended to make learners acquire new

(A) Knowledge

(B) Behaviours

(C) Soft skills

(D) Ways of aggressive attitude

(E) Hyper-reaction

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A, B and C only

(2) B, C and D only

(3) C, D and E only

(4) A, D and E only

Q.20. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Inter-personal communication can be mediated or aumediated.

Statement II: On its part mostly, mass communication need not be mediated.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options give below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Q.21. A Piece of work can be done by 3 boys and 2 men jointly in 10 days. The same work can be done jointly by 2 boys and 3 men in 8 days. In how many days the same work can be done by 1 boy and 2 men jointly?

(1) 11.5

(2) 12.5

(3) 13.5

(4) 14.5

Q.22. After increasing the selling price of an article by 25%, the new price of the article becomes Rs. 250. Now a discount of 25% is offered on the new price. What would be the profit or loss in percentage on the original price.

(1) Profit of 6.25%

(2) Loss of 6.25%

(2) Loss of 12.5 %

(4) Loss of 12.5%

Q.23. If S is an even integer, then which of the following are true?

(A) S + 1 will be odd

(B) 2S – 1 will be odd

(C) S2 – 1 will be odd

(D) S2 – 1 will be odd

(E) S2 + 2 will be odd

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A and B only

(2) A, B and C only

(3) A, B, C, and D only

(4) C, D and E only

Q.24. If A = 2, Z=52 and CAT= 48 and BAT = 46. Then what will be the value of RAT + MAT?

(1) 78

(2) 146

(3) 68

(4) 148

Q.25. A takes twice as much time as B takes and thrice as much as C to complete a job. By working together A, B and C can complete the job in 4 hours. Find the time taken by each of them separately to complete the job. i.e. the time taken by A, B, and C respectively to complete the job.

(1) (24, 12, 8)

(2) (12, 8, 24)

(3) (8, 12, 24)

(4) (8, 16, 24)

Q.26. “The death penalty in certain western countries has led to increase in crime rate leading to greater number of inmates in their prisons. Therefore, death penalty is not justifiable”. Which fallacy is committed in the above argument?

(1) False Cause

(2) Slippery Slope

(3) Red Herring

(4) Straw Man

Q.27. If the statement – “All plants are green organisms” is given as false, then which of the following statements could be immediately inferred to be true?

(A) No plants are green organisms

(B) Some green organisms are plants

(C) Some plants are green organisms

(D) Some plants are not green organisms

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A only

(2) B and C

(3) A and D only

(4) D only

Q.28. Which of the following statements are so related that they cannot both be true, although both may be false?

(A) All fungi are living beings

(B) No fungi are living beings

(C) Some fungi are living beings

(D) Some fungi are not living beings

Choose the correct answer from the given below:

(1) A and C Only

(2) C and D Only

(3) A and B Only

(4) A and D Only

Q.29. Which of the following statements are logically equivalent?

(A) No amphibians are mammals.

(B) All non-mammals are non-amphibians.

(C) All amphibians are non-mammals.

(D) No mammals are amphibians.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A, B and C Only

(2) A, C and D Only

(3) A, B and D Only

(4) A and D Only

Q.30. According to the classical Indian School of logic (Nyaya) in the process of inference (anumana), the reasoning proceeds from:

(1) Universal to particular only

(2) Particular to universal only

(3) Universals to Universals through particulars

(4) Particulars to particulars through the universal

Q.31. A digital camera contains a microprocessor. The camera’s specification includes:

– 20 megapixel resolution

– 32 gigabyte memory card

– autofocus facility

If a compressed image file requires an average of 1 byte per pixel, then what is the maximum number of photos that can be stored on the memory card? (1 Kilo = 1024)

(1) 1638

(2) 819

(3) 409

(4) 732

Q.32. Which of the following statements about Bluetooth are TRUE?

(A) Bluetooth will only work over long distances.

(B) No wires are needed when exchanging files via Bluetooth.

(C) Bluetooth allows you to speak hands-free on a Mobile phone.

(D) Music can be played wirelessly from your Mobile phone to a speaker using Bluetooth.

(E) Transfer speeds when sending files are faster than using Wi-Fi.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A and E Only

(2) A, B and C Only

(3) C, D, E Only

(4) B, C and D Only

Q.33. Given below are two statements based on generic file type that can be opened in an appropriate software on most platforms:

Statement I: A file saved in portable document format (.pdf) is a generic text file.

Statement II: Moving Pictures experts group layer 4 (.mp4) is an example of generic image file format.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Q.34. Which one of the following acronyms matches incorrectly with its full form?

(1) USB – Universal Serial Bus

(2) RFID – Radio Frequency Infrared Device

(4) CRT – Cathode Ray Tube

(4) JPEG- Joint Photographic Expert Group

Q.35. Identify the correct ascending order of the following list of stages A-E when text, written in magnetisable ink, is passed over a Magnetic Ink Character Reader (MICR).

(A) As each character passes over the head, it produces a unique waveform.

(C) Ink on the paper is first magnetised

(D) MICR text is passed over an MICR reader

(E) The waveform is recognised by the computer system.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) C, D, B, A, E

(2) D, C, B, A, E

(3) B, D, C, A, E

(4) A, C, B, E, D

Q.36. Which of the following decades is known as United Nations Decade of Biodiversity?

(1) 1991-2000

(2) 2001-2010

(3) 2011-2020

(4) 2021-2030

Q.37. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Negative feedback effects tend to increase the magnitude of climate change.

Statement II: Positive feedback effects tend to reduce magnitude of climate change.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and State II are correct.

(2) Both statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Q.38. Adding organic materials, such as sewage or paper pulp, to water stimulates consumption of which chemical by decomposers.

(1) Carbon dioxide

(2) Oxygen

(3) Salts

(4) Minerals

Q.39. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Flat plate collectors are example of simplest and most economic solar collectors.

Statement II: Some of the solar concentrating collectors essentially use flat plate collectors.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Q.40. Which one of the following air pollutants has a very strong affinity towards haemoglobin (Hb) of blood?

(1) Carbon dioxide (CO2)

(2) Carbon monoxide (CO)

(3) Sulphur dioxide (SO₂)

(4) Nitrogen dioxide (NO2)

Q.41. Takshashila is an important archaeological site and UNESCO declared it to a world Heritage Site in the year

(1) 1980

(2) 1990

(3) 1992

(4) 1978

Q.42. Who among the following founded the Imperial Library which he wanted to see as a Future Bodleian Library or a British Museum of the East?

(1) Lord Curzon

(2) Lord Canning

(3) Charles Wood

(4) Lord Mount baton

Q.43. IGNOU hosts secretariats of the SAARC consortium on open and distance learning (SACODIL) and the Global Mega Universities Network (GMUNET), initially supported by:

(1) UNDP

(2) UNESCO

(3) UNHCR

(4) UNICEF

Q.44. What is the full form of ‘SAMVAY’?

(1) Skill Achievement Matrix for vocational Assessments of Young

(2) State Authority Ministry for Veterinary Achievement of Youth

(3) Skill Assessment Matrix for Vocational Advancement of Youth

(4) State Analysis Maintenance for various Analysis of Young

Q.45. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: As per NEP-2020, National Research Foundation (NRF) will constitute a National Committee for the Integration of Vocational Education (NCIVE)

Statement II: As per NEP-2020, Model Public Universities for holistic and multidisciplinary education, at par with IITs. IIMs, called MERUS (Multidisciplinary Education and Research Universities) will be set up to attain the highest global standards in quality education.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Kant’s claim that liberal states are pacific in their international relations with other liberal states revived in the 1980s. In a much-cited article, Michael Doyle argued that liberal states have created a ‘Separate peace’.

According to Doyle, there are two elements to the Kantian legacy, restraint among liberal states and ‘international imprudence’ in relations with non-liberal states. Although the empirical evidence seems to support the democratic peace thesis, it is important to bear in mind the limitations of the argument. In the first instance, for the theory to be compelling, believers in the thesis need to provide an explanation as to why war has become unthinkable between liberal states. Kant had argued that if the decision to use force were taken by the people, rather than by the prince, then the frequency of conflicts would be drastically reduced. But, logically, this argument also implies a lower frequency of conflicts between liberal and non-liberal states, and this has proven to be contrary to the historical evidence.

An alternative explanation for the democratic peace thesis might be that liberal states tend to be wealthy, and therefore have less to gain (and more to lose) by engaging in conflicts than poorer authoritarian states. Perhaps the most convincing explanation of all is the simple fact that liberal states tend to be in relations of amity with other liberal states.

Q.46. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Historical evidence suggests that the frequency of conflicts between liberal and non-liberal states is low.

Reason R: In liberal states, the decision to go to war is taken by the people, rather than by the monarch.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanations of A.

(2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT correct explanation of A.

(3) A is correct but R is not correct.

(4) A is not correct but R is correct.

Q.47. Identify the inferences that you can draw after reading the passage.

(A) Frequency of conflicts among the liberal states is low.

(B) Frequency of conflicts between liberal and non-liberal states is low.

(C) Liberal states are generally rich.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A and B Only

(2) B and C Only

(3) A and C Only

(4) A, B and C

Q.48. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Liberal states have very little to gain and much to lose by going to war.

Reason R: Liberal states are generally wealthy.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanations of A.

(2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT correct explanation of A.

(3) A is correct but R is not correct.

(4) A is not correct but R is correct.

Q.49. What can be said about the liberal states after reading the passage?

(A) Liberal states tend to maintain peace with all other states.

(B) Liberal states tend to maintain peace with other liberal states.

(C) Liberal states tend to be wealthy.

(D) Decision to go to war is taken democratically in liberal states.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A, B and C Only

(2) B, C and D Only

(3) A, C and D Only

(4) A, B, C and D

Q.50. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: There exists international wisdom when it comes to relations with non-liberal states.

Statement II:: Liberal states tend to maintain enmity with other liberal states.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and State II are correct.

(2) Both statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

PDF Name: DECEMBER 2022 SHIFT I Paper 1  NTA UGC NET

Language: English

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