FULL MODEL PRACTICE TEST 2 GEOGRAPHY PAPER 2 NTA UGC NET 2022

FULL MODEL PRACTICE TEST 2 (100) GEOGRAPHY PAPER 2 NTA UGC NET 2022

Free Geography Mock Test For NTA UGC NET & SET Exams, NTA UGC NET Geography Mock Test, Model Test for Geography Paper, Practice Test for NTA UGC NET Geography Paper 2, Geography Free Mock Test By Netset Corner, 

MODEL PRACTICE TEST 2 GEOGRAPHY PAPER 2 NTA UGC NET 2022

To Attempt this Mock Test, Click on the Below Start Button

FULL MODEL MOCK TEST 2 

 

0%
267
Created on By netset corner

MODEL PRACTICE TEST 2 GEOGRAPHY

  • This Test Contains 100 Questions
  • Total Questions is 100
  • All Questions are Compulsory
  • No Negative Marking
  • Specific Time given for this quiz
  • Quiz / Test will start after clicking on Start Button
  • After Completing Quiz, can see result in Percentages (%)
  • Note If you found anything  wrong then please WhatsApp us -8436520537
  • Attempt Carefully, so lets start, best wishes 

 

 

 

1 / 100

Q.1. Which of the following is an example of a divergent plate boundary?

(a) The Andes mountains of South America

(b) The San Andreas fault

(c) The Mid-Atlantic ridge

(d) The Himalayas

2 / 100

Q.2. The ‘Western disturbances’ give precipitation to which of the areas?

(a) Jharkhand and West Bengal

(b) North-East states

(c) MP and Chhattisgarh

(d) Jammu and Kashmir, Western parts of Punjab

3 / 100

Q.3. Tropical cyclones do not develop in 5°-10° latitudes

(a) because of presence of doldrums

(b) because of presence of convergence zone

(c) because of absence of moisture

(d) because of absence of coriolis force

4 / 100

Q.4. Which of the following organisation published the report 'Our Common Future'?

(a) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change

(b) UN Convention on Climate Change

(c) World Commission on Environment and Development

(d) UN Conference on Environment and Development

5 / 100

Q.5. Which of the following is/are characteristic of formal region?

(a) Functional interdependence

(b) Objectivity

(c) A degree of homogeneity or some uniformity, which is visibile to everyone

(d) Both b and c

6 / 100

Q.6. Bifurcation ratio is defined as

(a) Measurement of configuration of streams

(b) Hierarchical position of a stream within a drainage basin

(c) Determinant of branching pattern of drainage basin

(d) None of the above

7 / 100

Q.7. Which of the following are characteristic of positivism?

  1. Anti-idealistic
  2. Empiricism
  3. Authoritarian
  4. Emphasises normative questions

Codes

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 3 and 4

(d) All of these

8 / 100

Q.8. Which of the following are members of Gulf Cooperation Council?

  1. Bahrain
  2. Kuwait
  3. Oman
  4. Qatar
  5. Iraq
  6. Saudi Arabia
  7. UAE
  8. Iran

Codes

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

(b) 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8

(c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 6 and 7

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8

9 / 100

Q.9. Consider the following statements

  1. Orographic rainfall occurs on the leeward sides of mountains.
  2. Cyclonic rainfall occurs only in the ITC zone.

Which of the statements is incorrect?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 1

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) None of these

10 / 100

Q.10. Which of the following correctly defines DEM?

(a) A software based tool to analyse huge amount of information

(b) Digital representation of land surface with respect to a fixed Datum

(c) Analysis of photos and convertion into digital formats

(d) None of the above

11 / 100

Q.11. Which of the following is not true about the UNFCCC?

(a) It is legally binding on party states

(b) It deals with stabilising greenhouse gas emissions in the atmosphere

(c) It consists of no enforcement mechanism

(d) It sets binding limits on greenhouse gas emissions for individual countries

12 / 100

Q.12. Which of the following ridges divides the Arabian Sea into two parts?

(a) Carlsberg

(b) Prince Edward Crozet

(c) Seychelles

(d) Madagascar

13 / 100

Q.13. Mangroves and swamp forest are mainly found in the areas of

(a) Krishna delta

(b) Aravalli ranges

(c) Lakshadweep Islands

(d) Periyar river

14 / 100

Q.14. Assertion (a) Atolls are more common in Atlantic Ocean.

Reason (R) The population of marine organisms decrease with depth.

Codes

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true, but R is false.

(d) A is false, but R.is true.

15 / 100

Q.15. Ecological niche refers to

(a) interaction between man and environment

(b) the functional role of an organism in the ecosystem

(c) interdependence of man and plant

(d) None of the above

16 / 100

Q.16. Which term did Toynbee use for Negro cultural realm?

(a) Oriental culture

(b) Continental culture

(c) Transitional culture

(d) Marginalise culture

17 / 100

Q.17. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

  1. Ges-periodos : Herodotus
  2. Meteorologica : Aristotle
  3. Astrolabe : Hiparchus
  4. Geographica : Strabo

Codes

(a) A, B and C

(b) B, C and D

(c) A, C and D

(d) All of these

18 / 100

Q.18. Which of the following is not the feature of qualitative approach to study geography?

(a) Subjective

(b) Inductive

(c) Deductive

(d) Descriptive

19 / 100

Q.19. Who has stated that "population when unchecked grows in a geometrical ratio while the subsistence increases only in arithmetical ratio"?

(a) Sadler

(b) Malthus

(c) Karl Marx

(d) Doubleday

20 / 100

Q.20. Who among the following emphasised the delimitation of population region?

(a) Glenn Trewartha

(b) Brock Webb

(c) Taylor

(d) Uark Wissler

21 / 100

Q.21. In which of the following States or UTs, Muslims form a majority of population of that State/UTs?

(a) Assam

(b) Arunachal Pradesh

(c) Lakshadweep

(d) None of these

22 / 100

Q.22. The most commonly used measure of dispersion is

(a) range

(b) standard deviation

(c) coefficient of variation

(d) quartile deviation

23 / 100

Q.23. Match the following

List I

Landform

List II

Process

A. Lapies1. Glacier
B. Wave-cut platform2. Wind
C. Moraines3. Waves
D. Barchan4. Karst

Codes

ABCD
(a)3421
(b)4312
(c)4321
(d)1234

24 / 100

Q.24. ‘Bwh’ region, according to Koppen's climatic classification is having which of the following characteristics?

(a) Average annual temperature less than 18°C

(b) Average annual temperature greater than or equal to 18°C

(c) Average temperature equal to 10°C or less

(d) None of the above

25 / 100

Q.25. Identify the type of anticyclone from the given information

“The are thermally induced and they develop due eta to very low insolation and temperatures. They develop over arctic region".

(a) Warm-anticyclone

(b) Blocking anticyclone

(c) Cold anticyclone

(d) None of the above

26 / 100

Q.26. Consider the following statements and choose the one which is correct.

(a) Limestone is a highly impermeable rock.

(b) Large swallow holes join to form uvala.

(c) Chasms are wide and shallow indentations carved out through wave action.

(d) Stalagmites are hanging depositional features of karst regions.

27 / 100

Q.27. Demographic features of developing countries are

(a) High infant mortality, low fertility, young age distribution and uneven population growth

(b) High fertility, high density, high mortality rate and young age distribution

(c) High fertility, falling mortality rate, rapid population growth and young age distribution.

(d) High density, high mortality, uneven population growth and very old age distribution

28 / 100

Q.28. Which of the following is a thermally direct pressure belt?

(a) Sub-tropical high

(b) Sub-polar low

(c) Polar high

(d) None of these

29 / 100

Q.29. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?

(a) Carbon dioxide

(b) Methane

(c) Nitrous oxide

(d) Carbon monoxide

30 / 100

Q.30. Slope replacement in Penck's model of cycle of erosion is primarily visible in?

(a) Absteigende Entwickelung

(b) Gleichformige Entwickelung

(c) Aufsteignde Entwickelung

(d) None of the above

31 / 100

Q.31. Match the following

List I

(Airport)

List II

(State)

A. Indira Gandhi International Airport1. Delhi
B. Dabolim International Airport2. Goa
C. Raja Sansi International Airport3. Amritsar
D. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel Airport4. Ahmedabad

Codes

ABCD
(a)4123
(b)1234
(c)4321
(d)1423

32 / 100

Q.32. Which of the following statement correctly defines social exclusion?

(a) Social exclusion is partial denial of rights only.

(b) Social exclusion is complete denial of rights only.

(c) Social exclusion is complete or partial denial of resources only.

(d) Social exclusion is complete or partial denial of access to rights, opportunities and resources.

33 / 100

Q.33. The concept of 'Urban Revolution' was given by

(a) Henry Pirenne

(b) Lewis Mumford

(c) Gordon Childe

(d) Zipf

34 / 100

Q.34. Which of the following features distinguishes a satellite town from a suburb?

(a) Presence of industrial, commercial hub in satellite towns

(b) Satellite towns are usually large than a suburb

(c) Satellite towns often becomes reverse commuting zones from the metropolitan areas

(d) All of the above

35 / 100

Q.35. Match the following

List I

Contributor

List II

Concept

A. Ratzel1. Cutural realm
B. Brock Webb2. Marginalised culture
C. Toynbee3. Cultural landscape
D. Baker4. Continental culture

Codes

 ABCD
(a)1324
(b)4213
(c)3124
(d)1342

36 / 100

Q.36. Which of the following gases are usually emitted from fumaroles?

(a) Oxygen

(b) Carbon dioxide

(c) Nitrogen

(d) Hydrogen

37 / 100

Q.37. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of the Eleventh Five Year Plan?

(a) To make India self-sufficient in foodgrain production

(b) To develop infrastructure

(c) 'Garibi Hatao' programme was introduced

(d) Reduction of poverty ratio by 10% by 2012

38 / 100

Q.38. The Gravity model was first introduced by which of the following?

(a) Walter Isard

(b) Edward Ullman

(c) Auguste Losch

(d) M E Hurst

39 / 100

Q.39. Who propounded the theory of 'Heartland' in political geography?

(a) Mackinder

(b) Spykman

(c) Smith

(d) Raiz

40 / 100

Q.40. Match the following

List I

(Phenomenon)

List II

(Meaning)

A. Ozone hole1. Ratio of reflected radiation to radiation received
B. Green house2. Acceleration effect of ozone destruction
C. Global warming3. Increases in CO2 level
D. Albedo

 

4. Difference in the outgoing and incoming radiation of the atmosphere

Codes

 ABCD
(a)2431
(b)4321
(c)3421
(d)2134

41 / 100

Q.41. ‘White Revolution’ was related to

(a) Floods

(b) Milk production

(c) Onions production

(d) Wheat production

42 / 100

Q.42. Which of the following concept was not introduced by Mark Jaffereson?

(a) Central place

(b) The primate city

(c) Civilising rails

(d) Normal cycle of erosion

43 / 100

Q.43. Pressure belts, on the surface of Earth, are created due to

(a) temporal variation in energy received on Earth's surface

(b) spatial variation in energy received on Earth's surface

(c) magnetic field of Earth

(d) Both a and b

44 / 100

Q.44. National waterway III links

(a) Sadiya to Dhubri

(b) Kollam to Kollapuram

(c) Kakinada to Puducherry

(d) Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly

45 / 100

Q.45. Match the following

List I

Concept

List II

Contributor

A. Lebensraum1. La Blache
B. Pays2. Solinius
C. Orbis Terrarum3. Ptolemy
D. Terra Incognita4. Ratzel

Codes

 ABCD
(a)2314
(b)1423
(c)4132
(d)4123

46 / 100

Q.46. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Blue Revolution-Fish production

(b) Golden Revolution-Horticulture

(c) Round Revolution-Tomato production

(d) Yellow Revolution-Oilseed and Edible oil

47 / 100

Q.47. Which of the following tribe is not found in West Bengal and parts of Odisha?

(a) Kondhs

(b) Toda

(c) Bondas

(d) Bhuinyas

48 / 100

Q.48. Before today's Tsunami warning system existed, the first notice of a Tsunami to most observers would be

(a) the large swell on the coast

(b) the rapid seaward recession of the shore line

(c) a series of sea waves reaching the coast

(d) a tidal bulge

49 / 100

Q.49. Boundaries that are allocated and delimited before significant settlement in an area are called

(a) Antecedent boundaries

(b) Subsequent boundaries

(c) Superimposed boundaries

(d) Relic boundaries

50 / 100

Q.50. The least transport cost location, according to the Hoover's theory of location, can be found by drawing

(a) Isohalines

(b) Isodapanes

(c) Isotims

(d) None of these

51 / 100

Q.51. Which of the following country is not member of OPEC?

(a) Algeria

(b) Kuwait

(c) UAE

(d) Oman

52 / 100

Q.52. In which of the following layers, the temperature rapidly increases with altitude?

(a) Troposphere

(b) Stratosphere

(c) Thermosphere

(d) Homosphere

53 / 100

Q.53. Which of the following are the adaptive mechanisms used by plants to survive in deserts?

  1. Nocturnal
  2. No leaves
  3. Long and deep roots
  4. Thick stem

Codes

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 4

54 / 100

Q.54. Assertion (A) The Pacific Ocean is a waning ocean.

Reason (R) The American plate is converging with the Pacific plate.

Codes

(a) Both A and R is true, and R is the correct explanation of

(b) Both A and R is true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true, but R is false

(d) A is false, but R is true

55 / 100

Q.55. The statement ‘The present is the key to the past’ is related to

(a) Catastrophism

(b) Uniformitarianism

(c) Isostasy

(d) Diastroophism

56 / 100

Q.56. Which one of the following is an ideal combination for setting up iron and steel industry?

(a) Coal - Electricity - Market

(b) Coal - Iron ore - Water

(c) Electricity - Water - Iron ore

(d) Coal- Water – Cotton

57 / 100

Q.57.

The above diagram depicts which of the following types of rural settlements?

(a) Star shaped

(b) Cross shaped

(c) T shaped

(d) Y shaped

58 / 100

Q.58. The food web is

(a) a very long straight linked food chain

(b) a moderate sized food chain having many trophic levels

(c) a series of food chains having frequent interlinks

(d) a circular food chain

59 / 100

Q.59. The first Conference of Parties to UNFCCC was held in

(a) Rio de Janeiro

(b) Marrakesh

(c) Paris

(d) Berlin

60 / 100

Q.60. Which of the following effects could be witnessed due to the rural to urban migration?

(a) Low sex ratios

(b) Rapid urbanisation

(c) Rise in poverty

(d) All of these

61 / 100

Q.61. Below diagram characterises which following population patterns?

(a) Expanding population

(b) Declining population

(c) Constant population

(d) None of these

62 / 100

Q.62. Which of the following gas has the highest Global Warming Potential (GWP)?

(a) Carbon dioxide

(b) Methane

(c) Clorofluoro carbons

(d) Water vapour

63 / 100

Q.63. Match the following

List I

Maps

List II

Feature

A. Isochrone maps1. Equal biological event
B. Isoneph maps2. Equal time
C. Isotim maps3. Equal cloudiness
D. Isophene maps4. Equal transport cost

Codes

 ABCD
(a)2341
(b)2413
(c)4321
(d)3241

64 / 100

Q.64. The average difference in the water level between high tide and low tide at a place is referred to as

(a) tidal bore

(b) tidal period

(c) tidal range

(d) tidal wave

65 / 100

Q.65.  Growing two or more crops in the same field at the same time is known as

(a) Intercropping

(b) Mono cropping

(c) Crop rotation

(d) Sequential cropping

66 / 100

Q.66. Choose the option which is incorrectly matched

(a) Davis          :      Peneplain

(b) Penck          :      Endrumph

(c) L C king      :     Panplain

(d) Wood          :     Derivation slope

67 / 100

Q.67. Compute the co-efficient of range from the following data 91, 54, 44, 56, 71, 25, 09, 27, 72, 62

(a) 0.79

(b) 0.82

(c) 0.85

(d) 0.76

68 / 100

Q.68. The ozone hole is

(a) a huge hole in atmosphere, where there is no trace ozone gas

(b) lowering of concentration of ozone in the atmosphere

(c) ozone depleting substance

(d) increasing concentration of ozone gas in the atmosphere

69 / 100

Q.69.  Which of the following is/are the objectives of World Trade Organisation (WTO)?

  1. Enhancing the free and fair trade
  2. Improve growth rate of world trade by encouraging members to reduce trade barriers.
  3. To increase the overall prosperity in the global be economies.

Codes

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 2

(d) All of these

70 / 100

Q.70. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched?

(a) Black Soil– Impermeable

(b) Alluvial Soil - Light Grey/Ash Grey Colour

(c) Red Soil - Rich in Copper

(d) Saline Soil - Swampy Areas

71 / 100

Q.71. Which one of the following may be categorised as footloose industry?

(a) Cement

(b) Ship building

(c) Electronic components

(d) Cotton textile

72 / 100

Q.72. The percentage of various components of energy usage can be best studied by

(a) histograms

(b) compound bar charts

(c) pie charts

(d) simple bar diagram

73 / 100

Q.73. Which of the following is not a type of Map projection?

(a) Oval

(b) Cylindrical

(c) Rectangular

(d) Conical

74 / 100

Q.74. The concept of edge city was popularised by

(a) Saskia Sassen

(b) Joel Garraeu

(c) Amartya Sen

(d) None of these

75 / 100

Q.75. Match the following

List I

Region

List II

Famous for

A. Pampore1. Wind Farm
B. Muppandal2. Solar Energy Centre
C. Vizhinjam3. Geothermal
D.Tatapani4. Wave Energy

Codes

 ABCD
(a)2134
(b)2143
(c)1423
(d)1234

76 / 100

Q.76. Which one of the following letters represent the total number of settlement of a certain order served by a central place of the next higher order?

(a) K

(b) J

(c) L

(d) F

77 / 100

Q.77. Assertion Cyclones over Bay of Bengal are characterized by clockwise circulation.

Reason (R) Their circulation is governed by pressure gradient and coriolis force.

Codes

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true, but R is false

(d) A is false, but R is true

78 / 100

Q.78. Which of the following are correct regarding Humboldt current?

  1. It is a cold current.
  2. It is caused by upwelling of sea water from moderate depths.
  3. It originates off the Peruvian coast.
  4. It is a warm current.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 3

79 / 100

Q.79. “A human creation intended to inform the humans” is

(a) Cultural ecology

(b) Cultural convergence

(c) Cultural heritage

(d) Cultural realm

80 / 100

Q.80. The areas which fall under very high damage earthquake zone category are

(a) Gujarat and Maharashtra

(b) Sikkim and Bihar

(c) North-Eastern states

(d) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh

81 / 100

Q.81. In which of the following zones, the amount of insolation is highest and seasonal variation in insolation is lowest?

(a) Polar zone

(b) Temperate zone

(c) Tropical zone

(d) Sub-polar zone

82 / 100

Q.82. How many satellites are there in the GPS constellation?

(a) 36

(b) 12

(c) 24

(d) 32

83 / 100

Q.83. The highest salinity is found in the

(a) Baltic Sea

(b) Okhotsk Sea

(c) Mediterranean Sea

(d) Red Sea

84 / 100

Q.84. SA Schumm gave the concept of

(a) Circularity ratio

(b) Elongation ratio

(c) Form factor

(d) Bifurcation ratio

85 / 100

Q.85. Which of the following is not true about National Biodiversity Authority?

(a) It is a statutory body

(b) It aims to implement the Biological Diversity Act

(c) Its Chairman is appointed by NGT

(d) It is an autonomous body

86 / 100

Q.86. The density of population of India is according to 2011 Census (in per sq km)

(a) 382

(b) 360

(c) 328

(d) 306

87 / 100

Q.87. Match the following

List I

(Wind)

List II

(Region)

A. Haboob1. West Africa
B. Harmattan2. North Africa
C. Khamsin3. Sudan
D. Bora4. Adriatic Coast

Codes

 ABCD
(a)1234
(b)3142
(c)2143
(d)3124

88 / 100

Q.88. Assertion (A) Vidal de la Blache was primarily interested in physical geography.

Reason (R) Physical geography is the study of natural environment.

Codes

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true, but R is false

(d) A is false, but R is true

89 / 100

Q.89. How much percentage of world population live in urban areas?

(a) 2%

(b) 46%

(c) 55%

(d) 71%

90 / 100

Q.90. Ammonification is defined as

(a) conversion of nitrates to nitrogen

(b) conversion of urea to ammonia

(c) conversion of ammonia to nitrates

(d) None of the above

91 / 100

Q.91. ‘Risalah’ of Al-Beruni deals with

(a) description about Indian monsoon

(b) description of differences in time of day and night in different regions

(c) Vegetation in India

(d) None of the above

92 / 100

Q.92. About 63% of India's petroleum production is from

(a) Assam

(b) Mumbai High

(c) Gujarat

(d) None of these

93 / 100

Q.93. Which of the following country is not included in Latin America?

(a) Venezuela

(b) Ecuador

(c) Bolivia

(d) Canada

94 / 100

Q.94. Which one of the following is not a long wave?

(a) Wind generated wave

(b) Tsunamis

(c) Seiches

(d) Deep water waves

95 / 100

Q.95. The very First Five Year Plan was based on the model of

(a) Mahalanobis

(b) Bombay plan

(c) Harrod Domar

(d) None of these

96 / 100

Q.96. Which of the following are the right bank tributaries of Tapi river?

(a) Gomai, Patki, Betul

(b) Ong, Jonk, Tel

(C) Bhavani, Amravati, Kabani

(d) Hiran, Kolar, Barna

97 / 100

Q.97. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

Name                            Country

(a) Hurricane                  USA

(b) Typhoon                   Japan

(c) Baguio                      Philippines

(d) Willy-Willy              Australia

98 / 100

Q.98. Match the following

List I

(Summits/Conferences)

List II

Reports/Declarations

A. Earth Summit1. Our Common Future
B. Brundtland Commission2. Red Data Book
C. UNFCCC3. Forest Principles
D. IUCN4. Action for Climate Empowerment

Codes

 ABCD
(a)3124
(b)1342
(c)3142
(d)4321

99 / 100

Q.99. Who is known as ‘Father of Cosmology’?

(a) Anaximander

(b) Herodotus

(c) Hipparchus

(d) Aristotle

100 / 100

Q.100. Match the following correctly

List I

(Symbols used by Koeppen)

List II

(Description)

A. t1. Winter dry
B. m2. Summer dry
C. w3. Monsoon climate
D. s4. Rainfall throughout the year

Codes

 ABCD
(a)4312
(b)4132
(c)4213
(d)4231

Your score is

The average score is 39%

0%

 

Read More: 

FULL MODEL / PRACTICE TEST GEOGRAPHY PAPER 2 

 (1) MODEL PRACTICE TEST 1 (100) GEOGRAPHY

SHIFT 1 & SHIFT 2 PAPERS DEC 2020 JUNE 2021

(1) DEC 2020 JUNE 2021 SHIFT-1 PAPER 2 GEOGRAPHY NTA UGC NET

(2) DEC 2020 JUNE 2021 SHIFT-2 PAPER 2 GEOGRAPHY NTA UGC NET

SHORT MODEL / PRACTICE TEST GEOGRAPHY PAPER 2

1. Geography Model Mock Test 1 (30)

2. Geography Model Mock Test 2 (30)

3. Geography Model Mock Test 3 (30)

4. Geography Model Mock Test 4 (30)

3 thoughts on “FULL MODEL PRACTICE TEST 2 GEOGRAPHY PAPER 2 NTA UGC NET 2022”

  1. Sir , 23 ke option misfit hai .
    And Mujhe lgta hai 30 ka aufystigende hoga .

    Reply

Leave a Comment

error: Content is protected !!