FULL MODEL PRACTICE TEST 4 GEOGRAPHY PAPER 2 NTA UGC NET 2022

FULL MODEL PRACTICE TEST 4 (100) GEOGRAPHY PAPER 2 NTA UGC NET 2022

Free Geography Mock Test For NTA UGC NET & SET Exams, NTA UGC NET Geography Mock Test, Model Test for Geography Paper, Practice Test for NTA UGC NET Geography Paper 2, Geography Free Mock Test By Netset Corner, 

MODEL PRACTICE TEST 2 GEOGRAPHY PAPER 2 NTA UGC NET 2022

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FULL MODEL MOCK TEST 4 

 

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MODEL PRACTICE TEST 4 GEOGRAPHY

  • This Test Contains 100 Questions
  • Total Questions is 100
  • All Questions are Compulsory
  • No Negative Marking
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1 / 100

Q.1. The thickest known deposit of ‘Loess’ on the ‘Loess plateau’ is found in

(A) China

(B) U.S.A.

(C) Mongolia

(D) Afghanistan

2 / 100

Q.2. Laterite is produced by:

(A) Hydration and carbonation

(B) Hydrolysis and oxidation

(C) Hydration and calcification

(D) Leaching and oxidation

3 / 100

Q.3. Which action is responsible for the formation of Eskers?

(A) Fluvio-glacial erosion

(B) Glacial erosion

(C) Glacial deposition

(D) Fluvio-glacial deposition

4 / 100

Q.4. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(A) Laterite soil - Uttar Pradesh

(B) Sandy soil - South Punjab

(C) Red soil - Tamil Nadu

(D) Black soil Madhya Pradesh

5 / 100

Q.5. Assertion (A): Granite has larger crystals than basalt.

Reason (R): Basalt has larger content of metallic minerals.

Which one of the following is correct?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

6 / 100

Q.6. Match the List-I and List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List I

(Processes)

(a) Hydraulic Action

(b) Plucking

(c) Deflation

(d) Solution

List II

(Features)

(1) Cirques

(2) Geo

(3) Terra-Rosa

(4) Desert Pavements

Codes:

 abcd
A.2143
B.3412
C.1243
D.2134

7 / 100

Q.7. A …………. tributary is formed when tributaries in a flood plain may not be able to enter the main river because of raised levees on either bank of the river.

(A) Deferred

(B) Solitary

(C) Anabranch

(D) Anastomosing

8 / 100

Q.8. What are the signs of rejuvenation in a river valley?

(1) Incised meanders

(2) Unpaired terraces

(3) Nick points

(4) Paired terraces

(A) (1), (2) and (3)

(B) (1) and (3)

(C) (2), (3) and (4)

(D) (1), (3) and (4)

9 / 100

Q.9. …………. is the area in a drainage network where stream directions are opposite and elevation is maximum.

(A) Mid slope

(B) Water divide

(C) Valley

(D) Confluence

10 / 100

Q.10. The turbidity currents observed as in arid climate are better known as…………

(A) Dust storms

(B) Thunderstorm

(C) Tornado

(D) Cyclone

11 / 100

Q.11. Which one of the statements is correct?

(A) Wind speed increases with friction

(B) Wind speed is inversely proportional to pressure gradient force

(C) Geostrophic wind blows parallel to the isobars

(D) Wind is deflected to its right in the southern hemisphere

12 / 100

Q.12. Köppen's climate types (List-I) and the regions/states of their occurrence (List-II) are given. Match List-I and List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List I

(a) Amw

(b) Aw

(c) Bshw

(d) Dfc

List II

(1) Rajasthan and Gujarat

(2) North Eastern States

(3) Orissa

(4) Western Coastal Region

Codes:

 abcd
A.2341
B.4312
C.1432
D.3214

13 / 100

Q.13.Assertion (A) : In a rising air parcel the rate of cooling is reduced after condensation.

Reason (R) : Latent heat is released during condensation.

Select your answer from the codes given below:

(A)       Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is proper explanation of (A)

(B)       Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C)       (A) is true but (R) is false

(D)       (A) is false but (R) is true

14 / 100

Q.14.   Intertropical convergence zone is a feature of which one of the following global circulation cells?

(A)       Ferrel cell

(B)       Hadley cell

(C)       Morley cell

(D)       Polar cell

15 / 100

Q.15.   The concentration of the following trace gases in the atmosphere in descending order is:

(A)       Carbon dioxide, Neon, Helium, Methane

(B)       Neon,  Helium, Methane, Carbon dioxide

(C)       Helium, Neon, Carbon dioxide, Methane

(D)       Methane, Carbon dioxide, Neon Helium

16 / 100

Q.16. In ionosphere the molecules and atoms of are ionized as they absorb high energy short wave solar energy.

(A)       Xenon and Argon

(B)       Nitrogen and Oxygen

(C)       Krypton and Hydrogen

(D)       Hydrogen and Methane

17 / 100

Q.17.   Assertion (A) : The Earth’s rotation deflects freely moving object.

Reason (R) : In northern hemisphere movement is anticlockwise and in southern hemisphere it is clockwise around low pressure.

Select your answer from the codes given below:

Select your answer from the codes given below:

(A)       Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is proper explanation of (A)

(B)       Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C)       (A) is true but (R) is false

(D)       (A) is false but (R) is true

18 / 100

Q.18.   Cold-type occluded front will form when:

(A)       The air behind the cold front is colder than the air ahead of warm front.

(B)       The air behind the cold front is warmer than the air ahead of warm front.

(C)       The air behind the cold front and the air ahead of warm front have same temperature.

(D)       The air behind the cold front and the air ahead of warm front have equal pressure.

19 / 100

Q.19.   Out of the total energy emitted by sun the proportion of visible light is about ………. percent.

(A)       43

(B)       49

(C)       7

(D)       1

20 / 100

Q.20.   Arrange the following in the ascending order of their years taken for the cycle:

(1)        Orbital eccentricity

(2)        Precession

(3)        Change in axial tilt

(A)       (2)        (1)        (3)

(B)       (3)        (2)        (1)

(C)       (2)        (3)        (1)

(D)       (1)        (3)        (2)

21 / 100

Q.21.   Syzygy refers to:

(A)       The earth’s position just below the sun

(B)       The moon’s position perpendicular to earth

(C)       Lining of new moon and the sun on the same side of the Earth

(D)       Occurrence of spring and neap tides at the same side

22 / 100

Q.22.   Assertion (A) : Tides are the periodic rise and fall of the ocean resulting from gravitational interactions of the moon, sun and the Earth.

Reason (R) : The rotation of the Earth, size and geometry of the ocean basins and local climatic conditions determine the local magnitude and periodicity of tides.

Which of the following is correct?

(A)       Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is proper explanation of (A)

(B)       Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C)       (A) is true but (R) is false

(D)       (A) is false but (R) is true

23 / 100

Q.23.   The Antarctic circumpolar current is generally parallel to:

(A)       80º S

(B)       60º N

(C)       60º S

(D)       70º S

24 / 100

Q.24.   Which of the following factors affect the size of wind generated waves?

(1)        Wind velocity

(2)        Wind duration

(3)        Fetch

(4)        Wave height

(A) (1) and (2)

(B) (2) and (3)

(C) (1), (2) and (3)

(D) (1), (2), (3) and (4)

25 / 100

Q.25.   Wave refraction is responsible for the dispersion of:

(A)       Wave energy

(B)       Ocean sediments

(C)       Planktons

(D)       Sea water

26 / 100

Q.26.   The circular clockwise flow of the water is called as .................. .

(A)       Geostrophic current

(B)       Upwelling

(C)       Gyre

(D)       Littoral current

27 / 100

Q.27.   In which of the following zones are maximum salinity values found?

(A)       Between 10º and 20º N

(B)       Between 20º and 30º N

(C)       Between 20º and 30º S

(D)       Between 0º and 23½º S

28 / 100

Q.28.   Gravel and sand will be deposited on .................... .

(A)       Littoral zone

(B)       Bathyl zone

(C)       Deep sea zone

(D)       Rift valley

29 / 100

Q.29.   Continental shelves are mainly overlain by ...................... type of sediments.

(A)       Biogenic

(B)       Hydrogenous

(C)       Terrigenous

(D)       Cosmogenous

30 / 100

Q.30. ………. represents a boundary zone between two water masses where the salinity gradient is steep.

(A)       Thermohaline

(B)       Halocline

(C)       Isohaline

(D)       Thermocline

31 / 100

Q.31.   In grassland ecosystem, pyramid of energy is .................. .

(A)       Inverted

(B)       Upright

(C)       Mixed

(D)       Spherical

32 / 100

Q.32.   Coral bleaching involves:

(A)       Whitening of the coral skeleton from solar UV radiation

(B)       The loss of coral tissues in competitive interactions with benthic algae

(C)       The loss of coral tissue due to the feeding by fish

(D)       The loss of symbiotic algae, called zooxanthellae, by the coral due to heat stress

33 / 100

Q.33.   The concept of ‘Ecological niche’ was introduced by .....................

(A)       J. Grinel

(B)       Charles Elton

(C)       E. Haeckel

(D)       Darwin

34 / 100

Q.34. Assertion (A) : In recent times, the biodiversity is deminishing with an accelerated rate.

Reason (R) : The exotic species are considered to be a major cause of extinction of species.

Which of the following is correct?

 (A)      Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is proper explanation of (A)

(B)       Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C)       (A) is true but (R) is false

(D)       (A) is false but (R) is true

35 / 100

Q.35.   Which is the right sequence for ecological diversity?

(A)       Biomes    → Habitat → Ecosystem → Population

(B)       Biomes → Ecosystem → Habitat → Niches

(C)       Biomes→ Ecosystem → Population → Niches

(D)       Biomes   → Habitat   → Niches → Ecosystem

36 / 100

Q.36.   Match the List-I and List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below List I

(a)        Dachigam

(b)        Panna

(c)        Bandipur

(d)       Indravati

List II

(1)        Karnataka

(2)        Chhattisgarh

(3)        Madhya Pradesh

(4)        Jammu and Kashmir

Codes:

 abcd
A.2341
B.1243
C.4312
D.3241

37 / 100

Q.37.   Assertion (A) : High light intensities are always associated with dry habitats and high transpiration rate.

Reason (R) : Indirectly light affects transpiration rates through increase in temperature which correspondingly affects water absorption too.

Which  one of  the following  is correct ?

(A)       Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is proper explanation of (A)

(B)       Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C)       (A) is true but (R) is false

(D)       (A) is false but (R) is true

38 / 100

Q.38.   Montreal protocol is related to ................... .

(A)       Global warming

(B)       Ozone depletion

(C)       Acid rain

(D)       Water pollution

39 / 100

Q.39.   United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) is an International Treaty negotiated at ...................

(A)       United Nations Climate Change Conference, Copenhagen, 2009

(B)       World Summit on Sustainable Development, Johannesburg, 2002

(C)       U.N. Conference on Environment and Development, Rio-de-Janeiro, 1992

(D)       United Nations Conference on the Human Environment Stockholm, 1972

40 / 100

Q.40.   Match the List-I and List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List I

(a)        Lithosere

(b)        Psammosere

(c)        Xerosere

(d)       Hydrosere

List II

(1)        Water

(2)        Rock

(3)        Sand

(4)        Dry region

Codes:

 abcd
A.2431
B.3241
C.4132
D.2341

41 / 100

Q.41.   Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below :

List I (Basis)

(a)        Distance

(b)        Causes

(c)        Number

(d)       Time

List II (Types)

(1)        Individual migration

(2)        Temporary or permanent migration

(3)        Economic or social migration

(4)        Long or short migration

Codes:

            (a)        (b)        (c)        (d)

(A)       (4)        (1)        (2)        (3)

(B)       (2)        (4)        (3)        (1)

(C)       (4)        (3)        (1)        (2)

(D)       (3)        (2)        (4)        (1)

42 / 100

Q.42.   Assertion (A) : An outstanding feature of rural-to-rural stream of migration in India is the preponderance of female migrants.

Reason (R) : This is primarily due to patri-local residence after marriage (marriage migration).

Which of the following is correct?

(A)       Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is proper explanation of (A)

(B)       Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C)       (A) is true but (R) is false

(D)       (A) is false but (R) is true

43 / 100

Q.43.   City region refers to one of the following:

(A)       An area demarcated by Government

(B)       An area around the city to which the city has transport linkages

(C)       An area around the city over which the city exercises a dominant influence in relation to other neighbouring cities of equal importance

(D)       An area of the city that supplies food and labour resources to the city

44 / 100

Q.44.   According to Demographic Transition, if the Crude Birth Rate (CBR) is 35/1000 and the Crude Death Rate (CDR) is around 20/1000, then the country is placed in………..stage.

(A)       Pre-transition

(B)       Transition

(C)       Post-transition

(D)       Indetermined as per data given

45 / 100

Q.45.   Given is the list of functional zones of a city.

(1)        Central Business District

(2)        Industrial Suburb

(3)        Outlying Business District

(4)        Residential Suburb

As per the Multiple Nuclei Model, which is the correct answer?

(A)       Only (1) and (2) are correct

(B)       Only (1) and (4) are correct

(C)       (1) and (3) are correct

(D)       (1), (2), (3) and (4) are correct

46 / 100

Q.46.   The year 1921 is widely viewed as the ‘Year of Demographic Divide’ in India because:

(A)       Fertility rate showing an excessively upward trend after this year

(B)       There was accelerated migration of people from rural to urban areas

(C)       Mortality rate began to decline leading to accelerated population growth

(D)       Demographic stability achieved for the first time after World War-I

47 / 100

Q.47.   Assertion (A) : In the first stage of demographic transition, mortality remains high but fluctuating.

Reason (R): Mortality rate fluctuates in response to epidemics and variable food supply in early stages of human history.

Select your answer from the codes given below:

(A)       Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is proper explanation of (A)

(B)       Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C)       (A) is true but (R) is false

(D)       (A) is false but (R) is true

48 / 100

Q.48.   Who postulated the forces of diversification and unification for striking a balance in the regularities of shape and size of settlement?

(A)       Homer Hoyt

(B)       E. Ullman

(C)       G. K. Zipf

(D)       Mark Jafferson

49 / 100

Q.49.   .................... is useful in objectively measuring inter-village settlement spacing.

(A)       Gravity model

(B)       Break-point theory

(C)       Nearest neighbour analysis

(D)       Concentration index

50 / 100

Q.50.   Which of the following statements is not correct?

(A)       More males are born than females

(B)       More males than females are found in higher (65+) age group in European countries

(C)       India has less females than males in its population

(D)       U.S.A. has a sex ratio more favourable to women

51 / 100

Q.51.   Which of the following type was not included in seven-fold system of land classification given by L.D. Stamp?

(A)       Arable

(B)       Heath and rough

(C)       Urban areas

(D)       Rural areas

52 / 100

Q.52.   Assertion (A) : China is the largest producer of hydropower in the world.

Reason (R) : There is favourable physiography, capital and access to high technology in China.

Which of the following is correct?

(A)       Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is proper explanation of (A)

(B)       Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C)       (A) is true but (R) is false

(D)       (A) is false but (R) is true

53 / 100

Q.53.   Assertion (A) : The satellite imageries have revolutionized. The technique of land use classification.

Reason (R) : Traditional land use survey gives a static description of existing land use and is very time, effort and money consuming.

Which one of the following is correct?

(A)       Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is proper explanation of (A)

(B)       Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C)       (A) is true but (R) is false

(D)       (A) is false but (R) is true

54 / 100

Q.54.   Which of the following is not a primary industrial region of the world today?

(A)       South Asia

(B)       Eastern Asia

(C)       Western and Central Europe

(D)       Eastern North America

55 / 100

Q.55.   Assertion (A) : Unplanned exploitation of natural resources and their use is a major problem of the present day.

Reason (R) : Sustainable development should be taken for the conservation of the natural resources.

Which one of the following is correct?

(A)       Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is proper explanation of (A)

(B)       Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C)       (A) is true but (R) is false

(D)       (A) is false but (R) is true

56 / 100

Q.56.   The proportion of area under various crops at a point of time is known as :

(A)       Crop combination

(B)       Cropping pattern

(C)       Crop concentration

(D)       Crop diversification

57 / 100

Q.57.   How many stages are there in the regional method proposed by Chadwick?

(A)       03

(B)       04

(C)       06

(D)       08

58 / 100

Q.58.   Which of the following statements about Von Thunen’s theory is not correct ?

(A)       His theory of agricultural land use is based on the concept of economic rent

(B)       Thunen’s main aim to present the theory was to show how and why agricultural land use varies with distance from the market

(C)       According to Thunen’s model-I the intensity of production of a particular crop increases with distance from the market

(D)       According to Von Thunen’s Model-II the type of land use varies with distance from the market

59 / 100

Q.59.   Who among the following has proposed model of development based on principle linear development ?

(A)       Rostow

(B)       Losch

(C)       Kindell

(D)       Christaller

60 / 100

Q.60.   Arrange the following multipurpose projects in India from north to south :

(1)        Damodar Valley Project

(2)        Bhakra Nangal Project

(3)        Tungabhadra Project

(4)        Kosi Project

Codes:

(A) (1), (2), (3) and (4)

(B) (2), (1), (3) and (4)

(C) (2), (4), (1) and (3)

(D) (4), (2), (3) and (1)

61 / 100

Q.61.   Assertion (A) : Space is an active agent in social well-being.

Reason (R) : Ghettos in American cities are spatial manifestation of extreme racial discrimination.

Which of the following is correct?

(A)       Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is proper explanation of (A)

(B)       Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C)       (A) is true but (R) is false

(D)       (A) is false but (R) is true

62 / 100

Q.62.   Which statement is true with reference to India as a cultural region?

(A)       Land of origin of religion (Hinduism, Budhism, Jainism, Sikhism)

(B)       Land of world’s largest religion (Hinduism)

(C)       Land of monotheistic religion

(D)       Land of political divisions based on religion

63 / 100

Q.63.Types of boundaries (List-I) and their description (List-II) are given below. Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

List I

(a)        Antecedent

(b)        Subsequent

(c)        Superimposed

(d)       Relic

List II

(1)        Ethnic-cultural divisions

(2)        Colonial divisions

(3)        New world

(4)        States are abandoned

Which of the following is correct?

Codes:

abcd
A.1324
B.3124
C.2413
D.4123

64 / 100

Q.64.   Arrange the following language dialects spoken in India in order of their spoken areas from North to South:

(1)        Tulu

(2)        Telugu

(3)        Dogri

(4)        Santhali

Which of the following is correct?

Codes:

(A)       (1)        (3)        (4)        (2)

(B)       (3)        (2)        (4)        (1)

(C)       (3)        (4)        (2)        (1)

(D)       (2)        (4)        (1)        (3)

65 / 100

Q.65.   Which of the following is not a factor in the development of federalism in a country?

(A)       Practice of totemism and animism

(B)       Large geographical size

(C)       Physiographic diversity

(D)       Socio-cultural diversity

66 / 100

Q.66.   Who from among the following four geographers is considered the pioneer of cultural geography?

(A)       Richard Hartshorne

(B)       Carl Sauer

(C)       Carl Ritter

(D)       E. Huntington

67 / 100

Q.67.   Diffusion of religion and language is not attributed to which of the following?

(A)       Missionary activity

(B)       Trade linkage

(C)       Education

(D)       Political system

68 / 100

Q.68.   Which state of India alone accounts for one-third of the country’s Christian population?

(A)       Kerala

(B)       Mizoram

(C)       Tamil Nadu

(D)       Nagaland

69 / 100

Q.69.   Who is the father of functional approach in political geography?

(A)       Ratzel

(B)       Haushofer

(C)       Hartshorne

(D)       Mahan

70 / 100

Q.70.   At district level, the scheduled tribes enjoy a dominant status (more than 80% share in the total district population) in which of the following regions of India?

(A)       North-western

(B)       North-eastern

(C)       Central

(D)       Southern

71 / 100

Q.71.   Assertion (A) : Behavioural geography laid importance to human activity in space, place and environment by studying it at the level of the individual person.

Reason (R) : Geographers in the Western societies discovered the utility of mental maps in understanding why spatial planning failed in most cases.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A)       Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is proper explanation of (A)

(B)       Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C)       (A) is true but (R) is false

(D)       (A) is false but (R) is true

72 / 100

Q.72.   Which of the following is/are not correct with reference to Humanistic Geography?

(1)        It is distinguished by the central and active role it accords to human awareness.

(2)        It induces geographers to take expeditions to the poorest and the most depressed areas with a view to obtaining unbiased first-hand information about them.

(3)        It is an attempt toward under- standing meaning, value and human significance of life events.

(4)        It is an expensive view of what the human person is and can do.

(A) (2) and (3)

(B) (3) and (4)

(C) (2) only

(D) (4) only

73 / 100

Q.73.   Name of scholars (List-I) and their contributions (List-II) are given below. Match List-I and List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :

List I

(a)        Ptolemy

(b)        Strabo

(c)        Eratosthenes

(d)       Herodotus

List II

(1)        First who noted the delta forming process in large rivers

(2)        Believed that Indian ocean was enclosed by joined coasts of Asia and Africa

(3)        Calculated the earth’s circumference

(4)        Famous for his work, “Geographica”

Codes:

 abcd
A.2143
B.3412
C.1243
D.2134

74 / 100

Q.74.   Which is the correct sequence of development that took place in the history of geography?

(1)        Possibilism

(2)        Post-modernism

(3)        Behaviourism

(4)        Quantitative analysis in geography

Codes :

(A) (2), (3), (4) and (1)

(B) (1), (4), (3) and (2)

(C) (1), (3), (4) and (2)

(D) (4), (3), (2) and (1)

75 / 100

Q.75.   Outside the United States, which was the university where a major centre of quantitative-theoretical geography had developed?

(A)       Oxford University, UK

(B)       University of Halle, Germany

(C)       University of Nancy, France

(D)       University of Lund, Sweden

76 / 100

Q.76.   Which one of the following is known as the language of geography as spatial science?

(A)       Ecosystem

(B)       Environment

(C)       Landscape

(D)       Geometry

77 / 100

Q.77.   Who is considered the originator of dualism between physical and human geography?

(A)       Carl Ritter

(B)       Oscar Peschel

(C)       Elisee Reclus

(D)       George Gerland

78 / 100

Q.78.   By means of ‘genre de vie’ and other concepts which school of Human Geography replaced the exaggerated Ratzelian notions of environmental determinism by the elastic concept of possibilism?

(A)       British

(B)       German

(C)       French

(D)       Dutch

79 / 100

Q.79.   Who for the first time clarified the relationship between special (Regional) and General (Systematic) Geography?

(A)       Buscheng

(B)       Humboldt

(C)       Kant

(D)       Varenius

80 / 100

Q.80.   Who for the first time attempted a classification of plants and animals?

(A)       Count Buffon

(B)       James Rennel

(C)       George Forster

(D)       John Ray

81 / 100

Q.81.   Which of the following situations would exist when the slope is referred as 100 percent?

(A)       The horizontal distance is double than vertical difference

(B)       The horizontal distance is same as the vertical difference

(C)       The horizontal distance is half than the vertical difference

(D)       The horizontal distance is 10 times of the vertical distance

82 / 100

Q.82.   The sensing and recording ability of the sensor in different wavelength of electromagnetic radiation is known as:

(A)       Spatial resolution

(B)       Radiometric resolution

(C)       Temporal resolution

(D)       Spectral resolution

83 / 100

Q.83.   Which of the following are used for calculating drainage density?

(1)        Stream length

(2)        Stream order

(3)        Basin perimeter

(4)        Basin area

(A) (1), (2) and (3)

(B) (2) and (3)

(C) (2), (3) and (4)

(D) (1) and (4)

84 / 100

Q.84.   Which of the following profiles represents only an outline of the hill ranges?

(A)       Cross profile

(B)       Longitudinal profile

(C)       Composite profile

(D)       Projected profile

85 / 100

Q.85.   Method of data collection changes primarily with:

(A)       Subject of investigation

(B)       Scope of enquiry

(C)       Statistical technique

(D)       Study area

86 / 100

Q.86.   Which type of regions can be best analysed by “Principal Component Analysis”?

(A)       Non-developed region

(B)       Formal region

(C)       Functional region

(D)       Planning region

87 / 100

Q.87.   Which of the following options is true for a positively skewed distribution?

(A)       Mean > Median < Mode

(B)       Mean = Median = Mode

(C)       Mean < Median < Mode

(D)       Mean > Median > Mode

88 / 100

Q.88.   Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below:

List I (Satellite)

(a)        ASTER

(b)        MODIS

(c)        Cartosat

(d)       IKONOS

List II (Major Application)

(1)        Used for cartographic application, urban, rural and coastal land use and other land information system

(2)        High resolution commercial satellite used for land use studies, natural resource, disaster management etc.

(3)        High resolution multi-spectral stereo images for digital terrain model, change detection of land surfaces

(4)        Used for large scale global cloud cover, radiation budget and oceanic studies

Codes:

 abcd
A.1432
B.2314
C.4321
D.3412

89 / 100

Q.89.   Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below:

List I

(a)        Isohypse

(b)        Isohel

(c)        Isocrymes

(d)       Isonephs

List II

(1)        Equal cloudiness

(2)        Equal height and pressure lines

(3)        Equal sunshine

(4)        Equal frost

Codes:

            (a)        (b)        (c)        (d)

(A)       (1)        (2)        (4)        (3)

(B)       (3)        (2)        (1)        (4)

(C)       (4)        (3)        (2)        (1)

(D)       (2)        (3)        (4)        (1)

90 / 100

Q.90.   Which of the following spatial analysis method in GIS can effectively detect changes in land use/land cover?

(A) Proximity analysis

(B) Overlay analysis

(C) Buffer analysis

(D) Network analysis

91 / 100

Q.91.   Which one of the following is not a lagoon?

(A)       Ashtamudi Lake

(B)       Chilka Lake

(C)       Periyar Lake

(D)       Pulicat Lake

92 / 100

Q.92.   Which one of the following is not an Anticident River?

(A)       Indus

(B)       Satluj

(C)       Ganga

(D)       Brahmaputra

93 / 100

Q.93.   Which of the following statements is/are true about the role of Sub- Tropical Jet Stream (STJ) in Indian Monsoon mechanism?

(1)        Sub-Tropical Jet Stream is a narrow band of fast moving air flowing from East to West

(2)        Sub-Tropical Jet Stream in northern hemisphere flows between 25º to 35º N in the upper troposphere at a height of about 12-14 km

(3)        The burst of monsoon depends upon the upper air circulation which is dominated by Sub- Tropical Jet Stream

Code:

(A) (1) and (2) only

(B) (2) and (3) only

(C) (1) and (3) only

(D) (1), (2) and (3)

94 / 100

Q.94.   Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List I (Biosphere Research)

(a)        Nokrek

(b)        Simlipal

(c)        Nanda Devi

(d)       Manas

 

List II (State)

(1) Assam

(2) Uttarakhand

(3) Odisha

(4) Meghalaya

 

Codes :

            (a)        (b)        (c)        (d)

(A)       (4)        (3)        (1)        (2)

(B)       (3)        (4)        (2)        (1)

(C)       (2)        (3)        (1)        (4)

95 / 100

Q.95.   Which of the following statements about laterite soil in India are correct?

(1)        It is generally red in colour

(2)        Cashewnuts grow well on this soil

(3)        It is poor in Nitrogen and Potash

(4)        It is well-developed in Rajasthan

Choose the correct answer:

(A) (1) and (2) only

(B) (1), (2) and (3) only

(C) (1), (2) and (4) only

(D) (1), (2), (3) and (4) only

96 / 100

Q.96.   As per 2011 census, which of the following cities are not a million plus city of Maharashtra?

(1)        Solapur

(2)        Kolhapur

(3)        Aurangabad

(4)        Amaravathi

Codes :

(A) (1), (2) and (3)

(B) (2), (3) and (4)

(C) (1), (3) and (4)

(D) (1), (2) and (4)

97 / 100

Q.97.   Assertion (A) : The concept of agro- ecological regions of India is a modified version of agro-climatic regions.

Reasoning (R) : Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAO) classified the difference between these two terms in 1983.

Codes:

(A)       Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is proper explanation of (A)

(B)       Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C)       (A) is true but (R) is false

(D)       (A) is false but (R) is true

98 / 100

Q.98.   Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List I (Crops)

(a)        Barley

(b)        Rice

(c)        Millets

(d)       Tea

 List II

(Geographical Conditions)

(1)        Hot and dry climate with poor soil

(2)        Cool climate with poorer soil

(3)        Warm and moist climate with high altitude

(4)        Hot and moist climate with rich soil

Codes:

 abcd
A.2413
B.2134
C.4231
D.2314

99 / 100

Q.99.   Which pass was opened between India and China for trade?

(A)       Nathula

(B)       Khardungla

(C)       Chumbi

(D)       Solang

100 / 100

Q.100. Assertion (A): According to NDMA and BMTPC, nearly 59% of India’s land area is vulnerable to moderate or severe Earthquakes.

Reasoning (R): The most vulnerable areas according to the seismic map of India is Eastern Ghat Region.

Codes:

(A)       Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is proper explanation of (A)

(B)       Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C)       (A) is true but (R) is false

(D)       (A) is false but (R) is true

Your score is

The average score is 44%

0%

 

Read More: 

FULL MODEL / PRACTICE TEST GEOGRAPHY PAPER 2

(1) GEOGRAPHY MODEL PRACTICE TEST 1 (100) 

(2) GEOGRAPHY MODEL PRACTICE TEST 2 (100) 

(3) GEOGRAPHY MODEL PRACTICE TEST 3 (100) 

SHIFT 1 & SHIFT 2 PAPERS DEC 2020 JUNE 2021

(1) DEC 2020 JUNE 2021 SHIFT-1 PAPER 2 GEOGRAPHY NTA UGC NET

(2) DEC 2020 JUNE 2021 SHIFT-2 PAPER 2 GEOGRAPHY NTA UGC NET

SHORT MODEL / PRACTICE TEST GEOGRAPHY PAPER 2

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2. Geography Model Mock Test 2 (30)

3. Geography Model Mock Test 3 (30)

4. Geography Model Mock Test 4 (30)

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